Williams’ Basic Nutrition & Diet Therapy 14th Edition, Nix Test Bank

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Test Bank For Williams’ Basic Nutrition & Diet Therapy 14th Edition, Nix. Note: This is not a text book. Description: ISBN-13: 978-0323083478, ISBN-10: 0323083471.

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Test Bank Williams Basic Nutrition Diet Therapy 14th Edition, Nix

Chapter 1: Food, Nutrition, and Health
1. Promoting a health care service that improves diabetes management for the elderly in a community would assist in which of the following?
a. supporting the National Health Goals-Healthy People 2020
b. reducing world hunger in the United States and Asia
c. improving Medicare reimbursement claims
d. providing access to child care services for children
2. A patient requires a nutrition assessment. The most appropriate professional to perform the assessment is a
a. physician.
b. nurse.
c. public health nutritionist.
d. registered dietitian.
3. The sum of all body processes inside living cells that sustain life and health is
a. science.
b. digestion.
c. metabolism.
d. nutrition.
4. The nutrients that provide the body with its primary source of fuel for energy are
a. vitamins.
b. minerals.
c. fiber.
d. carbohydrates.
5. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the functions of protein?
a. Proteins can be a primary fuel source even if there is adequate carbohydrate intake.
b. Proteins are a necessary nutrient to provide energy for the body in times of stress.
c. Proteins can be used as coenzyme factors during cell metabolism.
d. Proteins are essential to tissue building and repair within the body.
6. A 65-year-old man requires 2000 kcal/day without any specific fat or carbohydrate requirements. The approximate number of kilocalories per day from fat his diet should provide is _____ kcal/day.
a. 400 to 700
b. 100 to 300
c. 500 to 800
d. 900 to 1200
7. The body’s main storage form of carbohydrate is
a. glycogen.
b. glycerol.
c. glucagon.
d. glucose.
8. The number of kilocalories provided by one slice of bread that contains 30 g carbohydrate, 3 g protein, and 1 g fat is _____ kcal.
a. 34
b. 136
c. 141
d. 306
9. The number of kilocalories from fat in a sandwich that contains 22 g fat is _____ kcal.
a. 88
b. 132
c. 154
d. 198
10. The number of kilocalories from protein in a sandwich that contains 15 g protein is _____ kcal.
a. 45
b. 60
c. 75
d. 135
Chapter 2: Carbohydrates
1. Carbohydrates are nutrients that are composed of the elements carbon, hydrogen, and
a. oxygen.
b. nitrogen.
c. water.
d. glucose.
2. Carbohydrates play a major role in nutrition because they
a. provide a long-term energy store.
b. are digested in the stomach.
c. help regulate body functions.
d. provide the body’s major source of energy.
3. Carbohydrates are stored as glycogen in the
a. central nervous system and muscles.
b. heart and liver.
c. small intestine.
d. liver and muscles.
4. An example of a food that contains a fructose sugar is
a. milk.
b. honey.
c. molasses.
d. corn.
5. Examples of the simple carbohydrates include
a. glucose and galactose.
b. sucrose and starch.
c. lactose and lignin.
d. fructose and glycogen.
6. The sugar to which all other sugars are converted and the one that circulates in the blood to provide major fuel for the body’s cells is
a. sucrose.
b. fructose.
c. glucose.
d. maltose.
7. Carbohydrates are called “quick energy” foods because
a. they do not take long to prepare and are readily available.
b. the human body can rapidly break them down to yield energy.
c. they are abundant in fast foods and can be readily absorbed.
d. they can yield more energy than other nutrients.
8. The carbohydrate form in which glucose is stored in the body is
a. starch.
b. polysaccharide.
c. glycogen.
d. fructose.
9. Of the following, the best food choices for dietary fiber include
a. fruit and fruit juice.
b. rice and crackers.
c. iceberg lettuce and tomato juice.
d. lentils and corn.
10. Types of dietary fiber include
a. lactose, galactose, and maltose.
b. polysaccharides and polyols.
c. starch, ptyalin and glucose
d. cellulose, lignin, and noncellulose.
Chapter 3: Fats
1. The functions of fat in the body include
a. enzyme production, insulation of long bones, and bone structure.
b. formation of bone structure and energy for daily activities.
c. flavoring low fat foods, supplying fatty acids, and lubrication for vital organs.
d. insulation of vital organs, temperature regulation, and cell membrane structure.
2. The number of kilocalories from fat in a meal that contains 35 g fat is
a. 35.
b. 140.
c. 315.
d. 350.
3. The recommended total calories provided by fat in an 1800 calorie diet would be
a. 180-270 calories.
b. 360-630 calories.
c. 540-630 calories.
d. 540-720 calories.
4. An element not found in triglycerides is
a. carbon.
b. hydrogen.
c. nitrogen.
d. oxygen.
5. Triglycerides are composed of
a. glycerol and amino acids.
b. trans—fatty acids.
c. hydrogenated fatty acids.
d. glycerol and fatty acids.
6. The chemical feature that distinguishes a saturated fatty acid from an unsaturated fatty acid is the
a. amount of water it contains.
b. amount of cholesterol it contains.
c. source.
d. amount of hydrogen it contains.
7. An example of a food that contains a high level of saturated fatty acids is
a. beef steak.
b. olive oil.
c. green tomatoes.
d. whole-grain bread.
8. Of the following fats, the one that is least saturated is
a. safflower oil.
b. corn.
c. cottonseed.
d. soybean.
9. Most fatty acids in plant foods are
a. monounsaturated.
b. polyunsaturated.
c. unsaturated.
d. saturated.
10. A patient is concerned with her weight. Her energy intake is calculated to be 1600 calories. Intake records reveal that her fat intake for the past month has been 120 calories or less per day. The appropriate intervention would be to
a. assess for essential fatty acid deficiency.
b. continue to monitor for changes.
c. continue current meal plan.
d. draw lab work immediately.
Chapter 4: Proteins
1. Proteins are built from simpler organic compounds called
a. indispensable amino acids.
b. amino acids.
c. fatty acids.
d. monosaccharides.
2. The element that is contained in proteins but not in carbohydrates or lipids is
a. carbon.
b. hydrogen.
c. nitrogen.
d. oxygen.
3. Two types of protein in the body are _____ protein and _____ protein.
a. complete, incomplete
b. animal, vegetable
c. dispensable, indispensable
d. tissue, plasma
4. The number of amino acids that are indispensable for human beings is
a. 6.
b. 9.
c. 11.
d. 14.
5. In the diet, the greatest proportion of indispensable amino acids is provided by
a. black beans.
b. peanuts.
c. safflower oil.
d. turkey.
6. A protein that contains all indispensable amino acids in the correct proportion and ratio is called
a. simple.
b. incomplete.
c. complete.
d. indispensable.
7. The number of kilocalories from protein in a sandwich that contains 24 g protein is _____ kcal.
a. 6
b. 96
c. 120
d. 216
8. An animal protein that has relatively little value as a dietary protein source when eaten alone is
a. egg.
b. gelatin.
c. milk.
d. fish.
9. Proteins from plant sources that are classified as incomplete include
a. wheat, peanuts, and corn.
b. milk, nuts, and cheese.
c. oats, gelatin, and soybeans.
d. corn, chicken, and milk.
10. An example of a protein-free body substance is
a. collagen.
b. hemoglobin.
c. insulin.
d. glycogen.
Chapter 5: Digestion, Absorption, and Metabolism
1. The process of digestion involves _____ and _____ actions.
a. thermal, chemical
b. chemical, electrical
c. mechanical, chemical
d. mechanical, thermal
2. The rhythmic contractions of the stomach and intestine that propel food along are called
a. segmentation.
b. peristalsis.
c. cardiospasm.
d. pendular movements.
3. An example of a gastric secretion is
a. intestinal lipase.
b. pancreatic amylase.
c. bile.
d. hydrochloric acid.
4. A pizza slice is being consumed by a hungry teen. The first actions of biting, chewing, and breaking up the slice into smaller particles is called
a. peristalsis.
b. segmentation.
c. pendular movements.
d. mastication.
5. A food that begins chemical digestion in the mouth is
a. chicken.
b. yogurt.
c. candy.
d. bread.
6. After ingested food is mixed and churned with gastric secretions, the semifluid mass is called
a. chyle.
b. chyme.
c. renin.
d. bolus.
7. One type of movement in the small intestine is
a. mastication.
b. segmentation.
c. kinetic propulsion.
d. expulsion.
8. Compared with the pH in the stomach, the pH in the small intestine is
a. lower.
b. higher.
c. the same.
d. neutral.
9. The enzyme that would be most important for digesting a skinless chicken breast would be
a. sucrase.
b. lipase.
c. peptidase.
d. bile.
10. A food that is high in a macronutrient broken down by trypsin is
a. bread.
b. fruit.
c. margarine.
d. chicken.
Chapter 6: Energy Balance
1. A nutrient that does not provide energy for the body is
a. carbohydrate.
b. protein.
c. vitamin.
d. fat.
2. Energy is lost from the body as
a. heat.
b. urine.
c. sweat.
d. fat.
3. The unit of measurement used to refer to the amount of energy in food is the
a. watt.
b. kilogram.
c. milligram.
d. kilocalorie.
4. The total number of kilocalories in a snack that contains 10 g carbohydrate, 2 g protein, and 5 g fat is _____ kcal.
a. 17
b. 68
c. 93
d. 153
5. Which of the following represents an external energy cycle?
a. the moon
b. growing plants
c. crystals
d. metabolism
6. After foods are eaten, they are converted into which of the following body fuels?
a. amino acids and fatty acids
b. fatty acids and glucose
c. glucose and triglycerides
d. glycogen and glucose
7. Metabolic rate would increase with a body temperature of
a. 97.4° F.
b. 98.4° F.
c. 98.6° F.
d. 101.2° F.
8. The amount of energy the body needs to maintain life while at digestive, physical, and emotional rest is called the
a. basal metabolic rate.
b. indirect calorimetry.
c. respiratory quotient.
d. nitrogen balance.
9. Metabolically active tissues in the body include
a. the heart, muscles, and intestine.
b. the brain, nerves, and hair.
c. the liver, kidney, and fingernails and toenails.
d. all body tissues.
10. Indirect calorimetry is used to measure which of the following?
a. basal or resting energy expenditure
b. weight
c. physical activity
d. body mass index
Chapter 7: Vitamins
1. For a compound to be classified as a vitamin, it must
a. be synthesized by the body.
b. be required in large quantities.
c. perform a vital function.
d. be water soluble.
2. A vitamin that behaves more like a hormone than a vitamin is vitamin
a. A.
b. D.
c. E.
d. K.
3. The provitamin form of vitamin A that is found in plant pigments is
a. beta-carotene.
b. chlorophyll.
c. beta-xanthophyll.
d. calciferol.
4. Spinach, carrots, and sweet potatoes are good sources of
a. beta-carotene.
b. vitamin A.
c. vitamin D.
d. vitamin E.
5. Liver is a rich source of
a. vitamin A (retinol).
b. vitamin C.
c. vitamin D.
d. vitamin E.
6. An important function of vitamin A is to
a. be incorporated into the bile.
b. help with blood clotting.
c. act as an antioxidant.
d. help form rhodopsin in the eye.
7. A deficiency of vitamin A may result in
a. osteoporosis.
b. bile obstruction.
c. breakdown of cell membranes.
d. night blindness.
8. Fish liver oils are a good source of
a. vitamin D.
b. vitamin E.
c. protein.
d. iron.
9. The active hormonal form of vitamin D is
a. cholecalciferol.
b. calciferol.
c. calcitriol.
d. calcitonin.
10. Two foods that are commonly fortified with vitamin D are
a. cereals and macaroni products.
b. milk and margarine.
c. flour and salt.
d. vegetable oils and shortenings.
Chapter 8: Minerals
1. The mineral present in the body in the greatest amount is
a. sodium.
b. calcium.
c. iron.
d. chloride.
2. The factors most responsible for regulating calcium absorption from food are
a. activity and diet.
b. dietary intake and vitamin D hormone.
c. metabolic rate and cardiovascular function.
d. vitamin D hormone, calcitonin, and parathyroid hormone.
3. Binding agents such as oxalic acid and phytic acid inhibit absorption of
a. potassium.
b. sodium.
c. sulfur.
d. calcium.
4. The person most at risk for developing osteoporosis is a
a. 25-year-old woman who plays tennis 3 times a week.
b. 35-year-old woman who has sustained multiple trauma and is bedridden.
c. 55-year-old woman who exercises 3 times a week and consumes adequate milk and dairy products at least 3 times a day.
d. 14-year-old girl who runs track and drink 4 glasses of milk daily.
5. An example of a food that is a good source of calcium is
a. kidney beans.
b. whole-grain bread.
c. yogurt.
d. spinach.
6. An example of a breakfast high in calcium is
a. scrambled eggs and toast.
b. pancakes and syrup.
c. sausage biscuit.
d. cereal and milk.
7. The functions of energy metabolism and acid-base balance are regulated by
a. sodium.
b. iron.
c. potassium.
d. phosphorus.
8. Two foods that are most important in bone formation are
a. margarine and apples.
b. milk and yogurt.
c. bread and red meat.
d. cereal and yogurt.
9. An important function of sodium is
a. energy metabolism.
b. water balance.
c. tooth formation.
d. nerve conduction.
10. Most of the body’s sodium is found in
a. plasma.
b. water outside cells.
c. water inside cells.
d. cerebrospinal fluid.
Chapter 9: Water Balance
1. The hormone that conserves body water is
a. vitamin D hormone.
b. antidiuretic hormone.
c. aldosterone.
d. parathyroid hormone.
2. The two minerals that occur in the extracellular fluid and regulate water balance are
a. calcium and potassium.
b. sodium and chloride.
c. phosphorus and magnesium.
d. potassium and magnesium.
3. A person is most likely to have a high body water content if he/she is
a. overweight.
b. underweight.
c. a bodybuilder.
d. sedentary.
4. The term extracellular fluid includes
a. plasma and tissue secretions.
b. plasma and fluid inside cells.
c. fluid surrounding cells and in beverages.
d. fluid surrounding cells and fluid inside cells.
5. A basic mechanism for maintaining body hydration is
a. thirst.
b. electrolyte balance.
c. acid-base balance.
d. activity level.
6. The hormone responsible for promoting conservation of sodium in the kidney is
a. aldosterone.
b. antidiuretic hormone.
c. angiotensin.
d. renin.
7. Mr. Jones consumes approximately 1500 mL/day from fluid contained in liquids and foods and from metabolism of foods. What percent of his fluid requirement does he meet if he requires 2400 mL/day?
a. 41%
b. 51%
c. 62%
d. 84%
8. Water formed from metabolism comes from
a. what is contained in foods.
b. moving from compartment to compartment.
c. what is absorbed from gastrointestinal secretions.
d. oxidation of nutrients in the cells.
9. The approximate volume of digestive secretions produced by the stomach each day is _____ mL.
a. 1000
b. 1500
c. 2000
d. 2500
10. The kidneys must excrete water in the urine because
a. the body needs to get rid of the ingested water.
b. water provides the vehicle for excretion of waste products.
c. they physiologically cannot retain all the water.
d. hormones ensure that a maximal amount of water is retained by the body.
Chapter 10: Nutrition during Pregnancy and Lactation
1. Nutritional needs during pregnancy are affected by
a. the mother’s age.
b. the sex of the infant.
c. the mother’s food cravings.
d. whether the mother works.
2. A pregnant woman’s energy needs must be met in order to
a. spare vitamins.
b. spare adipose stores.
c. prevent fetal deformity.
d. spare protein.
3. Daily kilocalorie needs during the second trimester exceed normal requirements by approximately _____ kcal.
a. 100
b. 200
c. 340
d. 500
4. The amount of extra protein required by pregnant women compared with nonpregnant women is approximately _____ g/day.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 25
d. 30
5. Increased protein is necessary in pregnancy for
a. preventing gestational diabetes.
b. sparing carbohydrates for energy needs.
c. growing maternal tissues.
d. preventing pregnancy-induced hypertension.
6. A good source of calcium during pregnancy is
a. orange juice drink.
b. lean ground beef.
c. milk.
d. baked beans.
7. A good source of iron during pregnancy would be
a. watermelon
b. orange juice
c. macaroni and cheese
d. lean ground beef
8. Iron needs increase during pregnancy because of
a. maternal constipation.
b. increased maternal blood volume.
c. increased maternal metabolic rate.
d. poor iron absorption during pregnancy.
9. Adequate folate in the periconceptional period helps prevent
a. cretinism.
b. mental retardation.
c. neural tube defects.
d. gestational diabetes.
10. The B-complex vitamins are required in greater amounts during pregnancy because
a. fetal demands for the vitamins are high.
b. more hemoglobin is synthesized.
c. the vitamins are excreted in greater quantities.
d. metabolic activities increase.
Chapter 11: Nutrition in Infancy, Childhood, and Adolescence
1. At birth, the reflexes an infant has are
a. rooting, biting, and swallowing.
b. sucking, munching, and swallowing.
c. rooting, sucking, and swallowing.
d. grasping, sucking, and gagging.
2. Foods for infants should be prepared without added
a. sugar and salt.
b. salt and herbs.
c. wheat and sugar.
d. milk and wheat.
3. The phase that shows the most erratic growth is
a. infancy.
b. childhood.
c. adolescence.
d. adulthood.
4. During a checkup at the clinic, a child’s growth is evaluated by using
a. fitness testing.
b. clinical observation.
c. food records.
d. growth charts.
5. A good source of energy for children is
a. chicken.
b. cereal with added sugar.
c. whole wheat toast.
d. a vitamin supplement.
6. In the growing years, most calories are needed for
a. tissue growth.
b. physical activities.
c. specific dynamic effect.
d. basal metabolic needs.
7. An example of a food that provides building material for tissue growth is
a. bread.
b. cheese.
c. broccoli.
d. an orange.
8. An 8-month-old infant who receives approximately 0.4 L of fluid per day is meeting
a. 200% of fluid needs per day.
b. 100% of fluid needs per day.
c. 75% of fluid needs per day.
d. 50% of fluid needs per day.
9. Compared with adults, infants and young children have more body fluid
a. outside the cells.
b. inside the cells.
c. in the bloodstream.
d. in intestinal secretions.
10. A good source of calcium for the growing child is
a. milk.
b. juice drink.
c. dinner roll.
d. hot dog.
Chapter 12: Nutrition for Adults: The Early, Middle, and Later Years
1. John is a 34-year-old who is active in his community coaching football. He was also recently promoted to a director level position at this job. John is in _____ adulthood.
a. young
b. young and middle
c. middle
d. older
2. A 42-year-old who makes independent decisions regarding who to marry and what type of family is desired is considered to be making what type of choices?
a. independent
b. dependent
c. wealthy
d. introspective
3. Making a choice to lose weight and manage one’s cholesterol level is most characteristic of which of the following age groups?
a. young adult
b. middle adult
c. school-age child
d. adolescence
4. Diabetes is an example of a chronic disease most often appearing during
a. childhood.
b. early adulthood.
c. middle adulthood.
d. older adulthood.
5. Biologic processes associated with aging may cause
a. an increased metabolic rate.
b. increased anxiety.
c. an increased ratio of adipose-to-muscle tissue.
d. increased kidney function.
6. Prescription and over-the-counter drugs can affect nutritional status because they
a. may contain toxins.
b. often result in addiction.
c. usually contain nutrients.
d. may affect appetite or absorption of nutrients.
7. Energy requirements decrease as adults age because
a. older adults have less stress than younger adults.
b. younger adults are still growing; older adults are not.
c. the height of adults decreases with age.
d. the number of functioning body cells decreases with age.
8. Each decade, basal energy needs decrease
a. 0.5% to 1%.
b. 1% to 2%.
c. 2% to 4%.
d. 5% to 8%.
9. If an older adult is losing weight, his or her caloric intake is
a. less than energy needs.
b. approximately the same as energy needs.
c. greater than energy needs.
d. poorly distributed throughout the day.
10. A 65-year-old patient’s ideal body weight is 115 lbs and on the yearly physical for the past 2 years reveals a recorded weight of 121 lbs. The assessment for this patient would be which of the following?
a. slightly underweight
b. close to ideal body weight
c. slightly overweight
d. maintained constant weight
Chapter 13: Community Food Supply and Health
1. One of the most common deficiencies in the world is _____________ deficiency.
a. zinc
b. biotin
c. iron
d. ascorbic acid
2. Farmers use pesticides to
a. increase the shelf life of foods.
b. control plant diseases.
c. prevent food-borne disease.
d. increase crop yields.
3. Farming methods that use natural means of pest control without the use of synthetic pesticides are called
a. fossil fuel.
b. genetically modified.
c. organic.
d. irradiated.
4. Lead absorption is increased in children with
a. malnutrition.
b. iron deficiency.
c. high sugar intakes.
d. unsafe drinking water.
5. Children exposed to high levels of lead are at risk for
a. mental deficits.
b. heart problems.
c. respiratory problems.
d. kidney problems.
6. Mercury poisoning is most often caused by eating which of the following?
a. raw seafood
b. improperly canned foods
c. fish from contaminated water
d. crops grown with pesticides
7. The main government agency responsible for food safety is the
a. Centers for Disease Control.
b. U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
c. U.S. Public Health Service (PHS).
d. Federal Trade Commission (FTC).
8. A health claim approved by the FDA is
a. apples and the prevention of hypertension.
b. low sodium and the prevention of hypertension.
c. zinc and the prevention of wounds.
d. spinach and the prevention of diabetes.
9. Leftovers placed in the refrigerator should be stored at or below _____° F.
a. 32
b. 40
c. 42
d. 45
10. Food additives _____ the nutritional value of foods.
a. decrease
b. sometimes increase
c. have no effect on
d. are legal only if they increase
Chapter 14: Food Habits and Cultural Patterns
1. Food habits are least affected by
a. news reports.
b. economics.
c. cultural factors.
d. social customs.
2. An example of a food item for which consumption has increased as a result of changing lifestyles and family patterns is
a. fast food french fries.
b. fresh apples and carrots.
c. fresh mashed potatoes.
d. homemade wheat bread.
3. A new food or new advice about food is more readily accepted if it comes from a(n)
a. dietitian.
b. grocery clerk.
c. hair dresser.
d. advertiser.
4. In Mediterranean countries, the main cooking fat is
a. olive oil.
b. lard or shortening.
c. peanut oil.
d. butter.
5. Of the following the most healthy snack item would be
a. whole wheat crackers and hummus.
b. ice cream topped with strawberries.
c. pretzels with cheese dip.
d. chicken nuggets with ranch dip .
6. A factor that contributes to the increasing prevalence of obesity is
a. expanding portion sizes at restaurants.
b. increased intakes of fruits and vegetables.
c. lower sodium intake in snack foods.
d. greater prevention of chronic disease.
7. An example of acculturation for a person immigrating from China to the United States would be
a. switching from rice to bread
b. continuing steamed rice with meals.
c. giving up fresh fruits with meals.
d. dressing in jeans occasionally.
8. An example of a Cajun dish would be
a. meatballs.
b. jambalaya.
c. chow mein.
d. burrito.
9. An eating style that includes a relatively high number of “eating occasions” is referred to as
a. grazing.
b. meals.
c. episodes.
d. snacking.
10. Although on the decline, _____ are associated with improved dietary quality and beneficial developmental assets.
a. family meals
b. women in the workplace
c. religious dietary laws
d. fast foods
Chapter 15: Weight Management
1. When energy intake exceeds energy expenditure, the result may be
a. anorexia.
b. malnutrition.
c. obesity.
d. hyperactivity.
2. If the ideal weight for height for a person is 110 lbs and his/her current weight is 140 lbs then he/she can be classified as
a. slightly overweight.
b. underweight.
c. obese.
d. extreme obese.
3. The most important factor in determining fatness or leanness is
a. weight.
b. height.
c. body composition.
d. diet.
4. An example of an extreme weight-loss measure is
a. a sound food plan.
b. aerobic exercise.
c. behavior modification.
d. fasting.
5. The most precise method for determining body composition is
a. skinfold calipers.
b. body weight.
c. underwater weighing.
d. fitness testing.
6. It is difficult to define “ideal weight” because
a. body weight increases with age.
b. men tend to weigh more than women.
c. body weight is largely determined by genetics.
d. a wide range of weights can be associated with good health.
7. The total body fat content that is associated with the lowest risk of chronic disease for women is
a. 7.0% – 15.8%.
b. 14.5% – 22.0%.
c. 12.0% – 25.8%.
d. 32.2% – 36.9%.
8. A teenage girl who has a distorted body image and refuses to maintain a minimal acceptable body weight should be evaluated for
a. anorexia nervosa.
b. bulimia nervosa.
c. fasting.
d. compulsive dieting.
9. Health problems related to obesity include
a. hypertension and lung disease.
b. hypertension and diabetes.
c. diabetes and arthritis.
d. arthritis and asthma.
10. For men, the range of body fat percentage associated with the lowest risk of chronic disease is
a. 7.0% – 15.8%.
b. 14.5% – 22.0%.
c. 21.0% – 25.8%.
d. 32.2% – 36.9%.
Chapter 16: Nutrition and Physical Fitness
1. The body’s carbohydrate energy reserve consists of
a. glucose and fructose.
b. sugar and starch.
c. glucose and glycogen.
d. glycogen and fatty acids.
2. The most common ergogenic supplement is
a. creatine.
b. caffeine.
c. iron.
d. carnitine.
3. If an athlete exercises for a prolonged period of time, the muscles will become
a. atrophied.
b. fatigued.
c. cramped.
d. limp.
4. The fuel source for short-term energy needs is
a. glycogen.
b. fatty acids.
c. fructose.
d. amino acids.
5. The most appropriate pregame meal would be
a. pasta with cream sauce and apple juice.
b. cheese and fruit.
c. cereal with skim milk and orange juice.
d. a bagel with cream cheese and water.
6. Long-term energy needs are provided by
a. glucose and fatty acids.
b. glycogen and fatty acids.
c. ascorbic acid and fatty acids.
d. glycogen and amino acids.
7. For the body to maintain a high level of steady exercise
a. there must be ample fat stores.
b. there must be sufficient oxygen available to the cells.
c. it must revert to an aerobic phase of metabolism.
d. energy expenditure must decrease.
8. To prepare for an athletic event of high endurance, the proper glycogen-loading process is
a. intensive workouts and very high intake of complex carbohydrates.
b. intensive workouts 2 to 3 times a day and high intake of simple carbohydrates.
c. gradual tapering of workouts and increasing carbohydrate intake.
d. gradual tapering of workouts and decreasing carbohydrate intake.
9. Dehydration is not affected by
a. surrounding temperature.
b. body fat content.
c. level of fitness.
d. the pregame or pre-exercise state of hydration.
10. The effect of exercise on blood lipoprotein levels is to
a. decrease low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) and decrease high-density lipoproteins (HDLs).
b. increase LDLs and increase HDLs.
c. increase LDLs and decrease HDLs.
d. decrease LDLs and increase HDLs.
Chapter 17: Nutrition Care
1. The person most responsible for nutrition care in a clinical setting is the
a. physician.
b. nurse.
c. clinical dietitian.
d. patient.
2. The member of the health care team who is in closest continual contact with patients and their families is the
a. physician.
b. clinical dietitian.
c. licensed nurse.
d. physical therapist.
3. Methods used for nutrition assessment of patients include
a. computed tomographic scans.
b. laboratory tests.
c. physical therapy.
d. fitness testing.
4. The anthropometric measure that gives an estimate of subcutaneous fat is
a. weight.
b. height.
c. mid–upper arm circumference.
d. skinfold thickness.
5. A plasma protein used to assess nutritional status is
a. serum albumin.
b. alkaline phosphatase.
c. total iron binding capacity.
d. blood urea nitrogen
6. A laboratory test that indicates immune function is the
a. serum albumin.
b. serum transferrin.
c. hematocrit.
d. lymphocyte count.
7. The laboratory test used to determine nitrogen balance is
a. serum albumin.
b. hemoglobin.
c. urinary urea nitrogen.
d. serum transferrin.
8. An alternative measure for height for a nonambulatory patient is
a. total arm span.
b. skin calipers.
c. waist circumference.
d. creatinine height index.
9. A clinical sign of poor nutritional status is
a. pale eye conjunctiva.
b. firm muscle tone.
c. good attention span.
d. appropriate body weight.
10. A dietary analysis that requires the patient to keep accurate records of what he or she eats and drinks is a
a. diet history.
b. food intake recall.
c. food record.
d. calorie count.
Chapter 18: Gastrointestinal and Accessory Organ Problems
1. The lower esophageal sphincter muscle controls entry of food into the
a. esophagus.
b. stomach.
c. small intestine.
d. rectum.
2. The term used to describe difficulty in swallowing is
a. pyrosis.
b. polydipsia.
c. dysphagia.
d. dyspepsia.
3. Many people who have gastroesophageal reflux are
a. underweight.
b. obese.
c. male.
d. children.
4. A resident who has Parkinson’s disease and resides in a long-term care facility has recurring pneumonia and coughs while eating. This may be evidence of
a. dysphasia.
b. dysphagia.
c. achalasia.
d. dyspnea.
5. Small outpouchings in the lower gastrointestinal tract are called
a. hernias.
b. lesions.
c. diverticula.
d. epiploic appendages.
6. An eroded mucosal area in the central portion of the gastrointestinal tract describes a
a. hiatal hernia.
b. diverticulum.
c. peptic ulcer.
d. Crohn’s lesion.
7. Most ulcers occur in the
a. esophagus.
b. stomach.
c. duodenal bulb.
d. ileum.
8. A food that should be omitted from the diet of a patient with peptic ulcer disease is
a. black pepper.
b. apple juice.
c. milk.
d. popcorn.
9. Which of the following describes general nutrition guidelines for a patient with a peptic ulcer?
a. General, well-balanced diet as tolerated
b. High-protein, low-fiber diet with no seasonings
c. High-protein diet and regularly scheduled meals
d. Low-fiber diet with no seasonings and no milk or cream
10. A food that appears to reduce symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome is
a. white bread with butter
b. peanut butter pretzels
c. sesame seed crackers
d. whole grain wheat toast
Chapter 19: Coronary Heart Disease and Hypertension
1. The underlying pathologic process in coronary heart disease appears to be
a. atrophy of the heart muscle.
b. weakened coronary vessels.
c. fibrous plaques in coronary vessels.
d. inadequate nutrition to the heart muscle.
2. The underlying pathologic process in coronary heart disease is known as
a. angina.
b. atherosclerosis.
c. hypertension.
d. myocardial infarction.
3. An infarct in a major artery supplying the brain results in
a. a myocardial infarction.
b. a coma.
c. a cerebrovascular accident.
d. hypertension.
4. A localized area of dying or dead tissue is called a(n)
a. atheroma.
b. infarct.
c. thrombus.
d. lesion.
5. A risk factor for coronary heart disease that cannot be controlled is
a. obesity.
b. family history.
c. lack of exercise.
d. smoking.
6. Protection against coronary heart disease is associated with a high-density lipoprotein (HDL) value of at least _____ mg/dL.
a. 30
b. 40
c. 60
d. 80
7. A food choice that may be limited in a meal plan controlling fat and cholesterol is
a. pork sausage.
b. baked beans.
c. broiled fish.
d. glazed carrots.
8. The function of lipoproteins is to carry
a. proteins to the liver for metabolism.
b. proteins to the cells for metabolism.
c. fat and cholesterol to the cells for energy and metabolism.
d. cholesterol to adipose tissue for storage.
9. Of the following, an appropriate seasoning choice to use for a sodium-restricted diet would be
a. celery salt.
b. lemon juice.
c. soy sauce.
d. BBQ sauce.
10. Appropriate snacks for a patient with hypertension would include
a. corn chips and salsa.
b. pretzel rings and cheese dip.
c. orange juice with whole wheat toast.
d. french fries with apple slices.
Chapter 20: Diabetes Mellitus
1. The primary organ involved in the disease process of type 1 diabetes mellitus is the
a. adrenal gland.
b. pancreas.
c. kidney.
d. liver.
2. The main factors that influence development of type 2 diabetes mellitus are
a. weight and heredity.
b. liver disease.
c. enzyme deficiencies.
d. childhood illnesses.
3. Type 2 diabetes is most common in
a. infants.
b. children.
c. adolescents.
d. older adults.
4. A food that represents one carbohydrate exchange would be
a. 1 slice whole wheat bread
b. 1 cup vanilla ice cream
c. 5 ounces white tuna
d. 1 tsp margarine
5. In reviewing the plan of care for a patient with type 2 diabetes who is overweight and likes to eat sweets, an initial goal might be to
a. start 10 units of regular insulin 30 minutes before each meal.
b. replace snack of 5 filled chocolate cookies with 3 graham crackers.
c. check blood sugar after eating cookies and initiate sliding scale insulin.
d. remove all carbohydrate foods and encourage only high protein foods.
6. A 62-year-old patient with a history of blood sugars slightly above normal and recurrent skin infections may need to be further assessed for
a. type 2 diabetes.
b. gestational diabetes.
c. chronic kidney disease.
d. hepatitis.
7. Uncontrolled diabetes is related to the abnormal metabolism of
a. carbohydrates and proteins.
b. proteins and fats.
c. carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.
d. carbohydrates only.
8. A blood sugar of 85 mg/dL would be considered
a. below normal.
b. borderline.
c. normal.
d. above normal.
9. The largest portion of islet cells in the pancreas are the cells that synthesize
a. glucagon.
b. insulin.
c. somatostatin.
d. growth hormone.
10. The hormone that is synthesized by the pancreatic islet cells is
a. glycogen.
b. ketone.
c. somatostatin.
d. insulin.