Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 5th Edition, Karin Test Bank

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Test Bank For Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 5th Edition, Karin. Note: This is not a text book. Description: ISBN-13: 978-1455754113, ISBN-10: 1455754110.

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Test Bank Goulds Pathophysiology Health Professions 5th Edition, Karin

Chapter 01: Introduction to Pathophysiology
1. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?
a. An inherited disorder
b. A combination of specific etiological factors
c. An unwanted effect of a prescribed drug
d. Prolonged exposure to toxic chemicals in the environment
2. The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the:
a. subjective feelings of discomfort during a chronic illness.
b. signs and symptoms of a disease.
c. factors that precipitate an acute episode of a chronic illness.
d. early indicators of the prodromal stage of infection.
3. The best definition of the term prognosis is the:
a. precipitating factors causing an acute episode.
b. number of remissions to be expected during the course of a chronic illness.
c. predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease.
d. exacerbations occurring during chronic illness.
4. Which of the following is considered a systemic sign of disease?
a. Swelling of the knee
b. Fever
c. Pain in the neck
d. Red rash on the face
5. Etiology is defined as the study of the:
a. causes of a disease.
b. course of a disease.
c. expected complications of a disease.
d. manifestations of a disease.
6. A type of cellular adaptation in which there is a decrease in cell size is referred to as:
a. hypertrophy.
b. metaplasia.
c. anaplasia.
d. atrophy.
7. A change in a tissue marked by cells that vary in size and shape and show increased mitotic figures would be called:
a. metaplasia.
b. atrophy.
c. dysplasia.
d. hypertrophy.
8. A deficit of oxygen in the cells usually due to respiratory or circulatory problems is called:
a. apoptosis.
b. ischemia.
c. hypertrophy.
d. necrosis.
9. When a group of cells in the body dies, the change is called:
a. ischemia.
b. gangrene.
c. hypoxia.
d. necrosis.
10. Rigorous weight lifting/body building regimens may result in the skeletal muscle cells undergoing:
a. hypertrophy.
b. dysplasia.
c. atrophy.
d. regeneration.

Chapter 02: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
1. Choose the correct proportion of water to body weight to be expected in a healthy male adult’s body:
a. 30%
b. 45%
c. 60%
d. 70%
2. Choose the correct proportion of blood (to body weight) in an adult male’s body:
a. 30%
b. 20%
c. 10%
d. 4%
3. Insensible fluid loss refers to water lost through:
a. perspiration only.
b. feces only.
c. perspiration and expiration.
d. urine and feces.
4. When the osmotic pressure of the blood is elevated above normal, water would shift from the:
a. blood into the cells.
b. interstitial compartment into the cells.
c. interstitial compartment into the blood.
d. cells into the interstitial compartment.
5. Which of the following would result from a deficit of plasma proteins?
a. Increased osmotic pressure
b. Decreased osmotic pressure
c. Increased hydrostatic pressure
d. Decreased hydrostatic pressure
6. Which of the following would cause edema?
a. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
b. Increased capillary osmotic pressure
c. Decreased capillary permeability
d. Increased capillary permeability
7. Which of the following would likely be related to an elevated hematocrit reading?
a. Fluid excess
b. Fluid deficit
c. Increased sodium level
d. Decreased erythrocytes
8. Which of the following is a typical sign of dehydration?
a. Rapid, strong pulse
b. Low hematocrit
c. Increased urine output
d. Rough oral mucosa
9. Which of the following terms refers to a combination of decreased circulating blood volume combined with excess fluid in a body cavity?
a. Dehydration
b. Third-spacing
c. Hypovolemia
d. Water retention
10. Which of the following is the primary cation in the extracellular fluid?
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. Iron

Chapter 03: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other Common Therapies
1. Which of the following are considered to be the toxic effects of a drug?
a. Additional, mild, unwanted effects
b. Unusual, unexpected mild effects
c. Serious, possibly life-threatening effects
d. Reduction of the allergic response
2. What is the unique, simple, and official name assigned to a specific drug for worldwide use?
a. Trade name
b. Chemical name
c. Proprietary name
d. Generic name
3. Which is the route of administration by which the largest proportion of the drug dose is likely lost before reaching the site of action?
a. Oral
b. Intramuscular
c. Sublingual
d. Intravenous
4. Ingesting a drug with a large meal may be likely to:
a. immediately increase the blood level of the drug.
b. prevent gastric irritation.
c. ensure that the total dose is absorbed into the blood.
d. cause more rapid excretion of the drug.
5. What is the reaction called when two drugs interact to produce a result much greater than the sum of individual effects?
a. Antagonism
b. Beneficial
c. Synergism
d. Potentiation
6. At which site are most drugs metabolized and prepared for excretion?
a. Liver
b. Kidneys
c. Circulating blood
d. Lymphoid tissue
7. In traditional Asian medicine, acupoints are usually located:
a. over pain or other sensory receptors.
b. where blood vessels branch.
c. over joints.
d. on designated meridians.
8. Traditional drug or surgical therapy is incorporated with nontraditional methods by:
a. chiropractors.
b. naturopaths.
c. homeopaths.
d. osteopaths.
9. Contraindications printed on the label of a drug identify:
a. those circumstances under which the drug should probably not be used.
b. those typical side effects associated with this drug.
c. the dosage limits associated with the use of the drug.
d. the maximum shelf life of the medication.
10. After they are metabolized, most drugs are excreted through the:
a. lungs.
b. pancreas.
c. kidneys.
d. large intestine.

Chapter 04: Pain
1. The impulses related to acute pain are usually transmitted by:
a. nociceptors.
b. myelinated A delta fibers.
c. unmyelinated C fibers.
d. any sensory fiber with a low pain threshold.
2. In which structure do pain impulses ascend the spinal cord?
a. Reticular formation
b. Corticospinal tract
c. Spinothalamic tract
d. Relevant dermatome
3. According to the gate-control theory, passage of pain impulses may be naturally blocked:
a. at the synapse by entry of other sensory impulses.
b. by the stress response.
c. by administration of morphine directly into the spinal cord.
d. by referring the pain to other parts of the body.
4. What is the term used to describe the degree of pain that is endured before an individual takes action?
a. Pain threshold
b. Referred pain
c. Phantom pain
d. Pain tolerance
5. What is the definition of endorphins?
a. Neurotransmitters at the nociceptors
b. Transmitters for sensory impulses
c. Opiate-like blocking agents in the central nervous system
d. Pain-causing chemical mediators
6. Pain perceived in the left arm during the course of a heart attack is an example of:
a. referred pain.
b. phantom pain.
c. chronic pain.
d. subjective pain response.
7. A headache that is related to changes in cerebral blood flow is classified as a/an ________ headache.
a. tension
b. sinus
c. migraine
d. intracranial
8. What is a common analgesic administered to control a moderate level of pain?
a. Meperidine
b. Acetaminophen
c. Codeine
d. Ibuprofen
9. Which of the following applies to spinal anesthesia?
a. It causes analgesia with loss of consciousness.
b. The drug is injected into cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or the epidural space of the spinal cord.
c. The drug stimulates release of endorphins in the spinal cord.
d. The transmission of pain impulses is blocked in a small area of the body.
10. Which of the following is a characteristic of acute pain but not of chronic pain?
a. Depression and debilitation
b. A perception of increased generalized pain and discomfort
c. Fatigue and lower pain tolerance
d. Severe but short term

Chapter 05: Inflammation and Healing
1. Tears are considered to be part of the:
1. first line of defense.
2. second line of defense.
3. third line of defense.
4. specific defenses.
5. nonspecific defenses.
a. 1, 4
b. 1, 5
c. 3, 4
d. 2, 52. A specific defense for the body is:
a. phagocytosis.
b. sensitized T lymphocytes.
c. the inflammatory response.
d. intact skin and mucous membranes.
3. The inflammatory response is a nonspecific response to:
a. phagocytosis of foreign material.
b. local vasodilation.
c. any tissue injury.
d. formation of purulent exudates.
4. Chemical mediators released during the inflammatory response include:
a. albumin and fibrinogen.
b. growth factors and cell enzymes.
c. macrophages and neutrophils.
d. histamine and prostaglandins.
5. Which of the following result directly from the release of chemical mediators following a moderate burn injury?
1. Pain
2. Local vasoconstriction
3. Increased capillary permeability
4. Pallor
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 3
d. 2, 4
6. Granulation tissue is best described as:
a. highly vascular, very fragile, and very susceptible to infection.
b. an erosion through the wall of viscera, leading to complications.
c. a type of adhesion with no vascularization.
d. a form of stenosis, in a duct, that is extremely tough and resists attack by microbes.
7. Edema associated with inflammation results directly from:
a. increased fluid and protein in the interstitial compartment.
b. increased phagocytes in the affected area.
c. decreased capillary permeability.
d. general vasoconstriction.
8. The warmth and redness related to the inflammatory response results from:
a. increased interstitial fluid.
b. production of complement.
c. a large number of white blood cells (WBCs) entering the area.
d. increased blood flow into the area.
9. What is the correct order of the following events in the inflammatory response immediately after tissue injury?
1. Increased permeability of blood vessels
2. Dilation of blood vessels
3. Transient vasoconstriction
4. Migration of leukocytes to the area
5. Hyperemia
a. 5, 3, 2, 1, 4
b. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
c. 2, 3, 5, 4, 1
d. 3, 2, 5, 1, 4
10. The process of phagocytosis involves the:
a. ingestion of foreign material and cell debris by leukocytes.
b. shift of fluid and protein out of capillaries.
c. formation of a fibrin mesh around the infected area.
d. movement of erythrocytes through the capillary wall.

Chapter 06: Infection
1. Bacteria that form an irregular cluster of spheres are called:
a. bacilli.
b. diplococci.
c. staphylococci.
d. streptococci.
2. A strict anaerobe requires which specific environment?
a. A dry environment
b. An acidic medium
c. Air at a temperature less than 61° F/16° C
d. The absence of oxygen
3. The presence of the bacterial capsule:
a. aids in the release of endotoxins.
b. protects the microbe from phagocytosis.
c. increases the release of toxins and enzymes.
d. prevents replication of the bacterium.
4. Microbial mutation means that:
a. genetic information has changed.
b. pathogens become nonpathogens.
c. the microbe survives adverse conditions but can no longer replicate.
d. the immune response to that microbe is strengthened.
5. A bacterial endospore can:
a. also be classified as an acid-fast bacterium.
b. exist in latent form inside a host cell.
c. reproduce very rapidly.
d. survive high temperatures and a dry environment.
6. The structure of a virus includes:
a. a cell wall and membrane.
b. metabolic enzymes for replication.
c. a protein coat and either DNA or RNA.
d. a slime capsule and cilia.
7. What method do viruses use to replicate?
a. Binary fission
b. Budding of a daughter cell from the parent viral cell
c. Producing reproductive spores
d. Using a host cell to produce and assemble components
8. A retrovirus such as HIV contains:
a. RNA and enzymes for its conversion.
b. a double strand of DNA.
c. many enzymes to limit budding of new virions.
d. numerous mitochondria.
9. How do antiviral drugs act?
a. They interfere with cell wall development.
b. They decrease cell membrane permeability.
c. They destroy new, immature viral particles.
d. They reduce the rate of viral replication.
10. Which statement applies to yeasts?
a. They are usually considered to be pathogenic.
b. They seldom contain a distinct nucleus.
c. They may cause opportunistic infection in the body.
d. They are normally not found in large numbers in resident flora.

Chapter 07: Immunity
1. Neutrophils:
a. are phagocytic cells.
b. produce histamine.
c. produce antibodies.
d. are elevated during an allergic response.
2. Which cells are required to process and present antigens from foreign material as the initial step in the immune response?
a. T–helper cells
b. Macrophages
c. Eosinophils
d. Monocytes
3. Humoral immunity is mediated by:
a. natural killer cells.
b. T lymphocytes (T cells).
c. B lymphocytes (B cells).
d. neutrophils.
4. A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that:
a. it is more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels.
b. it is slower than the primary response and doesn’t change the antibody levels.
c. it occurs at the same time as the primary response but results in a decrease in antibodies.
d. it only occurs in hyperallergic reactions and results in a decrease of antibodies.
5. Which type of immunity is provided by a vaccination?
a. Active natural
b. Active artificial
c. Passive natural
d. Passive artificial
6. When an allergen binds with IgE antibodies on mast cells, resulting in release of chemical mediators, this reaction is called:
a. cytotoxic hypersensitivity.
b. immune complex hypersensitivity.
c. type I hypersensitivity.
d. type IV hypersensitivity.
7. The role of memory cells is to:
a. change into an antibody-secreting cell following activation.
b. immediately secrete antibodies following the first exposure to antigen.
c. recognize the antigen and stimulate the immune response.
d. bind complement to the antibody.
8. Which statement applies to contact dermatitis?
a. It occurs when IgE antibodies on the skin react with the causative substance.
b. It may result from ingested foods.
c. Urticaria (hives) gradually spread over the body.
d. A type IV reaction occurs in affected areas.
9. Which of the following causes anaphylaxis?
a. A severe, systemic allergic reaction
b. Type III hypersensitivity
c. Cell-mediated hypersensitivity
d. Immune complex deposits in many tissues
10. Following a positive HIV antibodies blood test and ELISA test, what is the test commonly used for confirmation?
a. Agglutination
b. Double immunodiffusion test
c. Western blot test
d. Sedimentation rate test

Chapter 08: Skin Disorders
1. Which of the following areas lacks blood vessels and nerves?
a. Epidermis
b. Dermis
c. Subcutaneous tissue
d. Fatty tissue
2. What is a raised, thin-walled lesion containing clear fluid called?
a. Papule
b. Pustule
c. Vesicle
d. Macule
3. Which of the following is a common effect of a type I hypersensitivity response to ingested substances?
a. Contact dermatitis
b. Urticaria
c. Discoid lupus erythematosus
d. Psoriasis
4. What change occurs in the skin with psoriasis?
a. Recurrent hypersensitivity reactions
b. Autoimmune response
c. Increased mitosis and shedding of epithelium
d. Basal cell degeneration
5. Which of the following best describes the typical lesion of psoriasis?
a. Purplish papules that can erode and become open ulcers
b. Firm, raised pruritic nodules that can become cancerous
c. Moist, red vesicles, which develop into bleeding ulcers
d. Begins as a red papule and develops into silvery plaques
6. Why do secondary infections frequently develop in pruritic lesions?
a. Loss of protective sebum
b. Entry of resident flora while scratching the lesion
c. Blockage of sebaceous glands
d. Increased sweat production
7. Which disease is considered an autoimmune disorder?
a. Pemphigus
b. Erysipelas
c. Contact dermatitis
d. Scleroderma
8. Which of the following skin lesions are usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus?
a. Furuncles
b. Verrucae
c. Scabies
d. Tinea
9. Which of the following statements applies to impetigo?
a. Lesions usually appear on the hands and arms.
b. The cause is usually a virus.
c. The infection is highly contagious.
d. Scar tissue is common following infection.
10. What is the common signal that a recurrence of herpes simplex infection is developing?
a. Severe pain around the mouth
b. Malaise and fatigue
c. Fever and severe headaches
d. Mild tingling along the nerve or on the lips

Chapter 09: Musculoskeletal Disorders
1. Which of the following cells produce new bone?
a. Osteocytes
b. Osteoblasts
c. Osteoclasts
d. Stem cells from the bone marrow
2. What is the chemical transmitter released at the neuromuscular junction?
a. Norepinephrine
c. Serotonin
d. Acetylcholine
3. What are the two types of bone tissue?
a. Vascular and nonvascular
b. Spongy and calcified
c. Compact and cancellous
d. Dense and pliable
4. Which of the following would identify an open or compound fracture?
a. The skin and soft tissue are exposed at the fracture site.
b. A bone is crushed into many small pieces.
c. The bone appears bent with a partial fracture line.
d. One end of a bone is forced into an adjacent bone.
5. Which of the following describes a Colles’ fracture?
a. The distal radius is broken.
b. The distal fibula is broken.
c. A vertebra appears crushed.
d. A spontaneous fracture occurs in weakened bone.
6. During the fracture healing process, the hematoma:
a. is broken down and absorbed immediately.
b. provides the base for bone cells to produce new bone.
c. is the structure into which granulation tissue grows.
d. produces fibroblasts to lay down new cartilage.
7. When a fracture is healing, the procallus or fibrocartilaginous callus:
a. can bear weight.
b. serves as a splint across the fracture site.
c. is the tissue that lays down new cartilage.
d. is made up of new bone.
8. The inflammation surrounding a fracture site during the first few days may complicate healing by causing:
a. excessive bone movement.
b. severe ischemia and tissue necrosis.
c. malunion or nonunion.
d. fat emboli to form.
9. What is a sign of a dislocation?
a. Crepitus
b. Pain and tenderness
c. Increased range of motion at a joint
d. Deformity at a joint
10. All of the following predispose to osteoporosis EXCEPT:
a. weight-bearing activity.
b. a sedentary lifestyle.
c. long-term intake of glucocorticoids.
d. calcium deficit.

Chapter 10: Blood and Circulatory System Disorders
1. Which of the following would result from a reduced number of erythrocytes in the blood?
a. Increased hemoglobin in the blood
b. Decreased hematocrit
c. Increased risk of hemostasis
d. Decreased osmotic pressure of the blood
2. What term is used to describe a deficit of all types of blood cells?
a. Leucopenia
b. Neutropenia
c. Pancytopenia
d. Erythrocytosis
3. Capillary walls consist of:
a. multiple endothelial layers.
b. a thick layer of smooth muscle.
c. two or three epithelial layers.
d. a single endothelial layer.
4. Vitamin K is required by the liver to synthesize:
a. heparin.
b. prothrombin.
c. amino acids.
d. bilirubin.
5. Individuals with type O blood are considered to be universal donors because their blood:
a. contains A and B antibodies.
b. contains A and B antigens.
c. lacks A and B antibodies.
d. lacks A and B antigens.
6. What are the two circulations that comprise the overall circulatory system?
a. Pulmonary and systemic circulations
b. Peripheral and central circulations
c. Cardiovascular and lymphatic circulations
d. Cardiopulmonary and peripheral circulations
7. Chronic blood loss causes anemia because of the:
a. shortened life span of the erythrocytes.
b. lower metabolic rate.
c. loss of protein and electrolytes.
d. smaller amount of recycled iron available.
8. What is the cause of sickle cell anemia?
a. A defective gene inherited from both parents
b. A chronic bacterial infection
c. Bone marrow depression
d. An autoimmune reaction
9. Which of the following best describes the characteristic erythrocyte associated with pernicious anemia?
a. Hypochromic, microcytic
b. Normochromic, normocytic
c. Elongated, sickle-shaped
d. Megaloblastic or macrocytic nucleated cells
10. What causes numbness and tingling in the fingers of individuals with untreated pernicious anemia?
a. Persistent hyperbilirubinemia
b. Increasing acidosis affecting metabolism
c. Vitamin B12 deficit causing peripheral nerve demyelination
d. Multiple small vascular occlusions affecting peripheral nerves

Chapter 11: Lymphatic System Disorders
1. The spleen has a number of important functions, which include:
a. lymph production, hematopoiesis, platelet production.
b. hematopoiesis, destruction of old erythrocytes, blood reservoir.
c. defense from infection, metabolism of vitamins, platelet production.
d. lipid metabolism, production of hemoglobin, water absorption.
2. The function of the hormones secreted by the thymus gland is to:
a. break down old erythrocytes and recycle the hemoglobin.
b. concentrate the lymph and filter out toxins.
c. stimulate lymph production.
d. enable lymphocytes to develop into mature T cells.
3. Malignant neoplasms involving lymphocyte proliferation in the lymph nodes are called:
a. lymphomas
b. myelomas
c. lymphocytomas
d. lymphedemas
4. The atypical cell that serves as a marker for diagnosing Hodgkin’s lymphoma is the:
a. monocyte.
b. Ann Arbor cell
c. Hodgkin’s lymphocyte
d. Reed-Sternberg cell
5. The staging system typically used in determining the stage of the Hodgkin’s lymphoma is the:
a. Reed-Sternberg system.
b. sequential staging system.
c. Ann Arbor system.
d. differential landmark system.
6. One of the reasons non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas are harder to treat than Hodgkin’s lymphomas is that they:
a. tend to be much larger than Hodgkin’s lymphomas.
b. involve multiple nodes and widespread metastases.
c. are not affected by the newer drug treatments.
d. are asymptomatic until they reach stage IV.
7. Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic disease of unknown etiology occurring in older adults and involving:
a. plasma cells.
b. T cells.
c. NK cells.
d. monocytes.
8. Elephantiasis, caused by the obstruction of lymphatic vessels by parasitic worms, is an example of the condition known as:
a. plasma cell myeloma.
b. diverticulitis.
c. lymphedema.
d. obstructive vessel disorder.
9. A rare illness that involves the overgrowth of lymphoid tissue, although not itself considered a cancer is:
a. Castleman disease.
b. hyperlymphatic disease.
c. hypolymphatic disease.
d. Ann Arbor disease.
10. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas are increasing in incidence, partly due to the numbers associated with:
a. an increase in resistant microorganisms.
b. an increase in adult obesity.
c. an increase in high cholesterol levels.
d. an increase in HIV infections.

Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System Disorders
1. >Which of the following actions causes the atrioventricular (AV) valves to close?
a. Increased intraventricular pressure
b. Depolarization at the AV node
c. Ventricular relaxation and backflow of blood
d. Contraction of the atria
2. When stroke volume decreases, which of the following could maintain cardiac output?
a. Decreased peripheral resistance
b. Increased heart rate
c. Decreased venous return
d. General vasodilation
3. Which of the following describes the pericardial cavity?
a. It contains sufficient fluid to provide a protective cushion for the heart.
b. It is a potential space containing a very small amount of serous fluid.
c. It is lined by the endocardium.
d. It is located between the double-walled pericardium and the epicardium.
4. Which of the following factors greatly improves venous return to the heart during strenuous exercise?
a. Rapid emptying of the right side of the heart
b. Forceful action of the valves in the veins
c. Contraction and relaxation of skeletal muscle
d. Peristalsis in the large veins
5. The function of the baroreceptors is to:
a. stimulate the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous system at the sinoatrial (SA) node as needed.
b. adjust blood pressure by changing peripheral resistance.
c. sense a change in blood oxygen and carbon dioxide levels.
d. signal the cardiovascular control center of changes in systemic blood pressure.
6. The normal delay in conduction through the AV node is essential for:
a. preventing an excessively rapid heart rate.
b. limiting the time for a myocardial contraction.
c. allowing the ventricles to contract before the atria.
d. completing ventricular filling.
7. Which of the following is a result of increased secretion of epinephrine?
a. Increased heart rate and force of contraction
b. Decreased stimulation of the SA node and ventricles
c. Vasoconstriction in skeletal muscles and kidneys
d. Vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels
8. Which of the following causes increased heart rate?
a. Stimulation of the vagus nerve
b. Increased renin secretion
c. Administration of beta-blocking drugs
d. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system
9. The event that causes the QRS wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing is:
a. atrial depolarization.
b. atrial repolarization.
c. ventricular depolarization.
d. ventricular repolarization.
10. The cardiac reserve is:
a. afterload.
b. the difference between the apical and radial pulses.
c. the ability of the heart to increase cardiac output when needed.
d. the extra blood remaining in the heart after it contracts.

Chapter 13: Respiratory System Disorders
1. What happens in the lungs when the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles relax?
a. Air is forced out of the lungs.
b. Lung volume increases.
c. Intrapulmonic pressure decreases.
d. Intrapleural pressure decreases.
2. The respiratory mucosa is continuous through the:
1. upper and lower respiratory tracts.
2. nasal cavities and the sinuses.
3. nasopharynx and oropharynx.
4. middle ear cavity and auditory tube.
a. 1 only
b. 1, 2
c. 2, 3
d. 1, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3, 4
3. Which of the following activities does NOT require muscle contractions and energy?
a. Quiet inspiration
b. Forced inspiration
c. Quiet expiration
d. Forced expiration
4. The maximum volume of air a person can exhale after a maximum inspiration is termed the:
a. expiratory reserve volume.
b. inspiratory reserve volume.
c. total lung capacity.
d. vital capacity.
5. Which of the following applies to the blood in the pulmonary artery?
a. PCO2 is low.
b. PO2 is low.
c. Hydrostatic pressure is very high.
d. It is flowing into the left atrium.
6. Which of the following causes bronchodilation?
a. Epinephrine
b. Histamine
c. Parasympathetic nervous system
d. Drugs that block β2-adrenergic receptors
7. The central chemoreceptors in the medulla are normally most sensitive to:
a. low oxygen level.
b. low concentration of hydrogen ions.
c. elevated oxygen level.
d. elevated carbon dioxide level.
8. Oxygen diffuses from the alveoli to the blood because:
a. PO2 is higher in the blood.
b. PO2 is lower in the blood.
c. CO2 is diffusing out of the blood.
d. more CO2 is diffusing out of cells into the blood.
9. Carbon dioxide is primarily transported in the blood:
a. as dissolved gas.
b. attached to the iron molecule in hemoglobin.
c. as bicarbonate ion.
d. as carbonic acid.
10. What would hypercapnia cause?
a. Increased serum pH
b. Decreased respirations
c. Respiratory acidosis
d. Decreased carbonic acid in the blood

Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders
1. Through what area does the cerebrospinal fluid circulate around the brain and spinal cord?
a. Between the double layers of the dura mater
b. In the subdural space
c. In the subarachnoid space
d. Through the arachnoid villi
2. Which of the following is the usual location of language centers?
a. Left hemisphere
b. Right hemisphere
c. Brainstem
d. Hypothalamus
3. What would be the effect of damage to the auditory association area in the left hemisphere?
a. Loss of hearing in both ears
b. Inability to understand what is heard
c. Loss of hearing in the left ear
d. Inability to determine the source of the sound
4. Which of the following applies to the corticospinal tract?
a. It is an ascending tract.
b. The nerve fibers conduct sensory impulses.
c. It is an extrapyramidal tract.
d. It is a pyramidal tract for efferent impulses.
5. What is a major function of the limbic system?
a. Overall control of fluid balance
b. Required for logical thinking, reason, and decision making
c. Determines emotional responses
d. Responsible for artistic and musical talents
6. Where are β1-adrenergic receptors located?
a. Bronchiolar walls
b. Arteriolar walls
c. Cardiac muscle
d. Glands of the intestinal tract
7. What does a vegetative state refer to?
a. Depression of the reticular activating system (RAS) and inability to initiate action
b. Loss of awareness and intellectual function but continued brainstem function
c. Continuing intellectual function but inability to communicate or move
d. Disorientation and confusion with decreased responsiveness
8. Which of the following conditions is NOT part of the criteria for a declaration of “brain death”?
a. No activity on EEG
b. Absence of all reflexes
c. No spontaneous respirations
d. Presence of any head injury
9. What is the best definition of aphasia?
a. The inability to comprehend or express language appropriately
b. Difficulty swallowing
c. Loss of the visual field contralateral to the area of damage
d. The inability to articulate words clearly
10. What is an early indicator of increased intracranial pressure?
a. Papilledema
b. Bilateral fixed dilated pupils
c. Decreasing responsiveness
d. Rapid heart rate

Chapter 15: Disorders of the Eye, Ear, and Other Sensory Organs
1. What do the extrinsic muscles of the eye control?
a. Movement of the eyeball
b. Movement of the eyelid
c. Size of the pupil
d. Shape of the lens
2. What must happen for the pupil of the eye to dilate?
a. The circular muscle of the iris must contract.
b. Cranial nerve III must be activated.
c. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system is required.
d. The optic nerve must be stimulated.
3. Which of the following is caused by an irregular curvature of the cornea or lens?
a. Nystagmus
b. Astigmatism
c. Hyperopia
d. Strabismus
4. Trachoma is an eye infection caused by:
a. influenza virus.
b. Candida albicans.
c. Staphylococcus bacteria.
d. Chlamydia bacteria.
5. Which statement does NOT apply to chronic glaucoma?
a. Degeneration and obstruction of the trabecular network
b. Gradual increase in intraocular pressure
c. Abnormally narrow angle between the cornea and iris
d. Damage to the retina and optic nerve
6. Which disorder is manifested by loss of peripheral vision?
a. Retinal detachment
b. Chronic (wide-angle) glaucoma
c. Cataract
d. Macular degeneration
7. Which of the following involves a gradual clouding of the lens of the eye?
a. Glaucoma
b. Cataract
c. Macular degeneration
d. Keratitis
8. Which of the following is a likely consequence of an untreated detached retina?
a. Lack of nutrients causing death of retinal cells
b. Edema of the cornea causing blurred vision
c. Cupping of the optic disc with damage to the optic nerve
d. Damage to the fovea centralis
9. Which of the following is a sign of a detached retina?
a. Painless blurring of vision
b. Eye pain, halos around lights, and nausea
c. Progressive loss of central vision
d. No pain, development of a dark area in the visual field
10. What is the basic pathological change with macular degeneration?
a. Increased amount of aqueous humor in the eye
b. Movement of vitreous humor between the retina and the choroid
c. Degeneration of the retinal cells in the fovea centralis
d. Damage to the optic nerve and meninges

Chapter 16: Endocrine System Disorders
1. What kind of control mechanism is indicated when increased blood glucose levels stimulate increased secretion of insulin?
a. Control by releasing hormones
b. Control by tropic hormones
c. Negative feedback control
d. Hypothalamus/hypophysis coordination
2. What is the most common cause of endocrine disorders?
a. Malignant neoplasm
b. Infection
c. Congenital defect
d. Benign tumor
3. Choose the statement that applies to type 1 diabetes mellitus.
a. Onset often occurs during childhood.
b. Relative insufficiency of insulin or insulin resistance develops.
c. It can be treated by diet, weight control and exercise, or oral hypoglycemics.
d. Complications rarely occur.
4. Why does polyuria develop with diabetes mellitus?
a. Increased thirst and hypoglycemia
b. Ketoacidosis
c. Osmotic pressure due to glucose
d. Diabetic nephropathy
5. What is the cause of diabetic ketoacidosis?
a. Excess insulin in the body
b. Loss of glucose in the urine
c. Failure of the kidney to excrete sufficient acids
d. Increased catabolism of fats and proteins
6. What is a precipitating factor for diabetic ketoacidosis?
a. Skipping a meal
b. Anorexia
c. Serious infection
d. Insulin overdose
7. Which of the following may cause insulin shock to develop?
a. Strenuous exercise
b. Missing an insulin dose
c. Eating excessively large meals
d. Sedentary lifestyle
8. Which of the following indicates hypoglycemia in a diabetic?
a. Deep, rapid respirations
b. Flushed dry skin and mucosa
c. Thirst and oliguria
d. Staggering gait, disorientation, and confusion
9. Which of the following are signs of diabetic ketoacidosis in an unconscious person?
a. Pale moist skin
b. Thirst and poor skin turgor
c. Deep rapid respirations and fruity breath odor
d. Tremors and strong rapid pulse
10. Immediate treatment for insulin shock may include:
a. administration of bicarbonates.
b. consumption of fruit juice or candy.
c. induced vomiting.
d. consumption of large amounts of water.

Chapter 17: Digestive System Disorders
1. Which of the following cells in the gastric mucosa produce intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid?
a. Parietal cells
b. Chief cells
c. Mucous cells
d. Gastrin cells
2. Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of nutrients?
a. Stomach
b. Duodenum
c. Ileum
d. Ascending colon
3. When highly acidic chyme enters the duodenum, which hormone stimulates the release of pancreatic secretions that contains very high bicarbonate ion content?
a. Gastrin
b. Secretin
c. Cholecystokinin
d. Histamine
4. Which of the following breaks protein down into peptides?
a. Amylase
b. Peptidase
c. Lactase
d. Trypsin
5. In which structure is oxygenated blood (arterial) mixed with unoxygenated blood (venous) so as to support the functions of the structure?
a. Pancreas
b. Liver
c. Small intestine
d. Spleen
6. Which of the following stimulates increased peristalsis and secretions in the digestive tract?
a. Sympathetic nervous system
b. Vagus nerve
c. Increased saliva
d. Absence of food in the system
7. Which of the following is contained in pancreatic exocrine secretions?
a. Bicarbonate ion
b. Hydrochloric acid
c. Activated digestive enzymes
d. Insulin
8. The presence of food in the intestine stimulates intestinal activity but inhibits gastric activity through the:
a. defecation reflex.
b. enterogastric reflex.
c. vomiting reflex.
d. autodigestive reflex.
9. Which of the following processes is likely to occur in the body immediately after a meal?
a. Lipolysis
b. Ketogenesis
c. Gluconeogenesis
d. Glycogenesis
10. What does the term gluconeogenesis refer to?
a. Breakdown of glycogen to produce glucose
b. Conversion of excess glucose into glycogen for storage
c. Formation of glucose from protein and fat
d. Breakdown of glucose into carbon dioxide and water

Chapter 18: Urinary System Disorders
1. Which of the following structures is most likely to be located in the renal medulla?
a. Proximal convoluted tubule
b. Glomerulus
c. Loop of Henle
d. Afferent arteriole
2. Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidney?
a. Regulation of body fluid concentrations
b. Removal of nitrogenous and acidic wastes
c. Activation of vitamin D
d. Production of albumin
3. Which of the following describes the correct flow of blood in the kidney?
a. Afferent arteriole to the peritubular capillaries to the venule
b. Efferent arteriole to the glomerular capillaries to the peritubular capillaries
c. Peritubular capillaries to the glomerular capillaries to the venule
d. Afferent arteriole to the glomerular capillaries to the efferent arteriole
4. Which of the following describes the flow of filtrate in the kidney?
a. The collecting duct to the distal convoluted tubule to the renal pelvis
b. Bowman’s capsule to the proximal convoluted tubule to the loop of Henle
c. The loop of Henle to the collecting duct to Bowman’s capsule
d. The distal convoluted tubule to the loop of Henle to the collecting duct
5. Which of the following describes the normal flow of urine?
a. Collecting duct to the renal pelvis to the ureter to the bladder
b. Renal pelvis to the urethra to the bladder to the ureter
c. Ureter to the renal pelvis to the urethra to the bladder
d. Collecting duct to the ureter to the urethra
6. Which statement about the bladder is TRUE?
a. The bladder wall lacks rugae.
b. Three openings from the urinary bladder form the trigone.
c. It contracts when stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system.
d. Continuous peristalsis in the bladder wall promotes urine flow.
7. Which of the following increases glomerular filtration rate?
a. Increased plasma osmotic pressure
b. Dilation of the efferent arteriole
c. Increased hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillaries
d. Constriction of the afferent arteriole
8. By what process is water reabsorbed from the filtrate?
a. Osmosis
b. Active transport
c. Cotransport
d. Capillary action
9. Which substance directly controls the reabsorption of water from the collecting ducts?
a. Renin
b. Aldosterone
c. Angiotensin
d. Antidiuretic hormone
10. Under what circumstances do cells in the kidneys secrete renin?
a. The urine pH decreases.
b. Blood flow in the afferent arteriole decreases.
c. Serum potassium levels are high.
d. Serum osmotic pressure increases.

Chapter 19: Reproductive System Disorders
1. Which statement about the testes is TRUE?
a. Each testis contains the ductus deferens.
b. The testes are suspended by the spermatic cord.
c. Each testis has its own scrotal sac and seminal vesicle.
d. The testes must be kept at a temperature slightly above body temperature.
2. Which statement about spermatogenesis is TRUE?
a. The complete process takes about 28 days.
b. Maturation of sperm takes place in the seminal vesicles.
c. It is controlled by follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and testosterone.
d. The process is initiated after each ejaculation.
3. Which of the following may result from cryptorchidism?
a. Infertility
b. Testicular cancer
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
4. Which term refers to excessive fluid collecting between the layers of the tunica vaginalis?
a. Varicocele
b. Hypospadias
c. Spermatocele
d. Hydrocele
5. Which of the following are common early significant signs of acute prostatitis?
a. A hard nodule in the gland and pelvic pain
b. Soft, tender, enlarged gland and dysuria
c. Hesitancy and increased urinary output
d. Mild fever, vomiting, and leucopenia
6. Which of the following applies to benign prostatic hypertrophy?
a. The tumor usually becomes malignant in time.
b. The gland becomes small, nodular, and firm.
c. Manifestations include hesitancy, dribbling, and frequency.
d. Lower abdominal or pelvic pain develops.
7. Why does frequent need for urination occur with benign prostatic hypertrophy?
a. Increased volume of dilute urine
b. Irritation of the bladder and urethra
c. Impaired micturition reflex
d. Incomplete emptying of the bladder
8. Which of the following is the common first site for metastasis from prostatic cancer?
a. Bone
b. Lungs
c. Liver
d. Testes
9. What is a useful serum marker during treatment for prostatic cancer?
a. Human chorionic gonadotropin
b. Alpha-fetoprotein
c. Prostate-specific antigen
d. Luteinizing hormone
10. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of leukorrhea during the reproductive years?
a. It is clear or whitish.
b. It has a pH of 4 to 5.
c. It does not contain any cells.
d. It contains mucus.

Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer
1. What is a benign neoplasm originating from adipose tissue called?
a. Adenoma
b. Lipoma
c. Fibrosarcoma
d. Adenocarcinoma
2. What are malignant neoplasms arising from connective tissue cells called?
a. Carcinomas
b. Sarcomas
c. Melanomas
d. Fibromas
3. Which of the following is a characteristic of a benign tumor?
a. It is unencapsulated and invasive.
b. It consists of undifferentiated cells.
c. It exerts systemic effects.
d. Cells appear relatively normal.
4. Which factor provides the basis for the grading of newly diagnosed malignant tumors?
a. Size of the tumor
b. Number of metastases
c. Degree of differentiation of the cells
d. Number of lymph nodes involved
5. A warning sign of possible cancer would be any of the following EXCEPT:
a. persistent, unusual bleeding.
b. a change in bowel habits.
c. sudden development of fever, nausea, and diarrhea.
d. a change in shape, color, or surface of a skin lesion.
6. The common local effects of an expanding tumor mass include:
1. obstruction of a tube or duct.
2. anemia and weight loss.
3. cell necrosis and ulceration.
4. tumor markers in the circulation.
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 3
c. 2, 4
d. 3, 4
7. Which of the following does paraneoplastic syndrome refer to?
a. The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells
b. Severe weight loss and cachexia associated with advanced cancer
c. The decreased resistance to infection resulting from malignant tumors
d. The effects of multiple metastatic tumors
8. Which term refers to the spread of malignant cells through blood and lymph to distant sites?
a. Invasiveness
b. Seeding
c. Metastasis
d. Systemic effect
9. One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to:
a. identify the original cell from which the tumor developed.
b. locate and identify the primary tumor.
c. decide the initiating factor for a particular tumor.
d. determine the best treatment and prognosis.
10. The process of carcinogenesis usually begins with:
a. exposure to promoters causing dysplasia.
b. development of defective genes.
c. an irreversible change in the cell DNA.
d. a single exposure to a known risk factor causing temporary cell damage.