Sale!

Foundations & Adult Health Nursing 7th Edition, Cooper Test Bank

$35.99 $20.99

Test Bank For Foundations & Adult Health Nursing 7th Edition, Cooper. Note: This is not a text book. Description: ISBN-13: 978-0323100014, ISBN-10: 0323100015.

Category: Tag:

Description

Test Bank Foundations Adult Health Nursing 7th Edition, Cooper

Chapter 1: Evolution of Nursing
1.What is a nursing program considered when certified by a state agency?
a. Accredited
b. Approved
c. Provisional
d. Exemplified
2.Which of the following must the nurse recognize regarding the health care delivery system?
a. It includes all states.
b. It affects the illness of patients.
c. Insurance companies are not involved.
d. The major goal is to achieve optimal levels of health care.
3.What is required by the health care team to identify the needs of a patient and to design care to meet those needs?
a. The Kardex
b. The physician’s order sheet
c. An individualized care plan
d. The nurse’s notes
4.Patient care emphasis on wellness, rather than illness, begins as a result of:
a. increased education concerning causes of illness.
b. improved insurance payments.
c. decentralized care centers.
d. increased number of health care givers.
5.What is the most effective process to ensure that the care plan is meeting the needs of the patient?
a. Documentation
b. Communication
c. Evaluation
d. Planning
6.How does an interdisciplinary approach to patient treatment enhance care?
a. By improving efficiency of care
b. By reducing the number of caregivers
c. By preventing the fragmentation of patient care
d. By shortening hospital stay
7.How may a newly licensed LPN/LVN practice?
a. Independently in a hospital setting
b. With an experienced LPN/LVN
c. Under the supervision of a physician or RN
d. As a sole practitioner in a clinic setting
8.Whose influence on nursing practice in the 19th century was related to improvement of patient environment as a method of health promotion?
a. Clara Barton
b. Linda Richards
c. Dorothea Dix
d. Florence Nightingale
9.What document identifies the roles and responsibilities of the LPN/LVN?
a. NLN Accreditation Standards
b. Nurse Practice Act
c. NAPNE Code
d. American Nurses’ Association Code
10.What is a cost-effective delivery of care used by many hospitals that allows the LPN/LVN to work with the RN to meet the needs of patients?
a. Focused nursing
b. Team nursing
c. Case management
d. Primary nursing

Chapter 2: Legal and Ethical Aspects of Nursing
1.When a nurse becomes involved in a legal action, the first step to occur is that a document is filed in an appropriate court. What is this document called?
a. Deposition
b. Appeal
c. Complaint
d. Summons
2.The nurse caring for a patient in the acute care setting assumes responsibility for a patient’s care. What is this legally binding situation?
a. Nurse-patient relationship
b. Accountability
c. Advocacy
d. Standard of care
3.What are the universal guidelines that define appropriate measures for all nursing interventions?
a. Scope of practice
b. Advocacy
c. Standard of care
d. Prudent practice
4.An LPN/LVN is asked by the RN to administer an IV chemotherapeutic agent to a patient in the acute care setting. What law should this nurse refer to before initiating this intervention?
a. Standards of care
b. Regulation of practice
c. American Nurses’ Association Code
d. Nurse practice act
5.A nurse fails to irrigate a feeding tube as ordered, resulting in harm to the patient. This nurse could be found guilty of:
a. malpractice.
b. harm to the patient.
c. negligence.
d. failure to follow the nurse practice act.
6.Patients have expectations regarding the health care services they receive. To protect these expectations, which of the following has become law?
a. American Hospital Association’s Patient’s Bill of Rights
b. Self-determination act
c. American Hospital Association’s Standards of Care
d. The Joint Commission’s rights and responsibilities of patients
7.The nurse is preparing the patient for a thoracentesis. What must be completed before the procedure may be performed?
a. Physical assessment
b. Interview
c. Informed consent
d. Surgical checklist
8.When a nurse protects the information in a patient’s record what ethical responsibility is the nurse fulfilling?
a. Privacy
b. Disclosure
c. Confidentiality
d. Absolute secrecy
9.An older adult is admitted to the hospital with numerous bodily bruises, and the nurse suspects elder abuse. What is the best nursing action?
a. Cover the bruises with bandages.
b. Take photographs of the bruises.
c. Ask the patient if anyone has hit her.
d. Report the bruises to the charge nurse.
10.What is the best way for a nurse to avoid a lawsuit?
a. Carry malpractice insurance
b. Spend time with the patient
c. Provide compassionate, competent care
d. Answer all call lights quickly

Chapter 3: Documentation
1.What does documentation of type of care, time of care, and signature of the person prove?
a. The person who signed the documentation did all the work noted.
b. No litigation can be brought against the person who signed.
c. Interventions were implemented to meet the patient’s needs.
d. The patient’s response to the intervention was positive.
2.Why is documentation especially significant in managed care?
a. The hospital needs to show that employees care for patients.
b. Institutions are reimbursed only for patient care that is documented.
c. Patients might bring lawsuits if care was not given.
d. Documents may become part of a lawsuit.
3.The nurse charts only additional treatments done, changes in patient condition, and new concerns. What is this system of documentation?
a. SOAP
b. Block
c. CBE
d. Focus
4.What form explains the lapse when events are not consistent with facility or national standards of expected care?
a. Subjective data
b. Focus chart
c. Incident report
d. Nursing assessment
5.The staff from all disciplines is developing integrated care plans for a projected length of stay for patients of a specific case type. This is known as a:
a. nursing order.
b. Kardex.
c. nursing care plan.
d. critical pathway.
6.What makes home health care documentation unique?
a. Some charting is retained at the hospital.
b. The physician’s office needs separate charting.
c. Different health care providers need access.
d. The physician is the pivotal person in the charting.
7.What regulates standards for long-term care documentation?
a. OBRA
b. Title XXII
c. Nursing diagnoses
d. The care plan
8.What is the nurse required to do to adhere to the concept of confidentiality for the patient’s medical record?
a. Provide information only to another nurse
b. Provide information only to an attorney
c. Share information only with the family
d. Have a clinical reason for reading the record
9.Documentation is necessary for the evaluation of patient care. Of which phase of the nursing process is this an integral part?
a. Assessment
b. Planning
c. Implementation
d. Evaluation
10.What does the nurse use as a basis for documentation in focus charting?
a. Problem list
b. Nursing orders
c. Nursing diagnoses
d. Evaluation

Chapter 4: Communication
1.Although the patient denies pain, the nurse observes the patient breathing rapidly with clenched fists and facial grimacing. What is the nurse’s best response to these observations?
a. “I am glad you are feeling better and have no discomfort.”
b. “Where do you hurt?”
c. “What you are saying and what I am observing don’t seem to match.”
d. “It makes me uncomfortable when you are not honest with me.”
2.The nurse considers the feelings and needs of a patient by stating, “I know you are concerned about your surgery tomorrow. How can I help you?” What type of communication is this?
a. Intrusive
b. Aggressive
c. Closed
d. Assertive
3.If the nurse aggressively says to a patient, “Why couldn’t you have asked me to give you your pain medication when I was in here earlier?” what feeling is the patient most likely to demonstrate?
a. Anger
b. Satisfaction that his needs are met
c. Humiliation and worthlessness
d. Confidence that his request will be granted
4.What does therapeutic communication accomplish?
a. Facilitates the formation of a positive nurse-patient relationship
b. Manipulates the patient
c. Assigns the patient a passive role
d. Requires the patient to accept what the nurse says
5.The nurse is sitting in a chair near the patient’s bed, leaning forward to hear what the patient is saying, and does not interrupt. What is the nurse demonstrating?
a. Support
b. Caring
c. Active listening
d. Interest
6.What therapeutic communication technique requires a great deal of skill and is not used as frequently as other communication techniques?
a. Touch
b. Silence
c. Listening
d. Summarizing
7.A patient does not speak English; therefore, the nurse cannot use words to provide comfort during a painful procedure. What is another intervention that may provide comfort to this patient?
a. Silence
b. Listening
c. Touch
d. Restating
8.A patient states, “I do cocaine when I feel things are out of my control.” The nurse responds by asking, “What else does cocaine do for you?” What communication skill does this exemplify?
a. Summarization
b. Restating
c. Showing acceptance
d. Stating observations
9.A patient states, “I’m really strung out about this pregnancy.” The nurse responds by asking, “What about this pregnancy worries you?” What communication technique is this?
a. Closed inquiry
b. Restating
c. Open-ended question
d. Minimal encouraging
10.A grieving young widow cries out, “Why was my husband killed? Why wasn’t it me?” What is the nurse’s best response?
a. Stating “You need to be strong for your children.”
b. Silently placing her hand on the widow’s arm.
c. Asking if there is anyone the widow needs to have notified.
d. Stating “You are feeling overwhelmed about your husband’s death.”

Chapter 5: Nursing Process and Critical Thinking
1.What best defines the nursing process?
a. A method to ensure that the physician’s orders are implemented correctly.
b. A series of assessments that isolate a patient’s health problem.
c. A framework for the organization of individualized nursing care.
d. A preset formula for the design of nursing care.
2.All of the following patients have been admitted to the acute care setting. On admission, which patient should receive a focused assessment?
a. 53-year-old admitted with a perforated ulcer
b. 5-year-old admitted for the implant of grommets in the middle ear
c. 76-year-old admitted for a knee replacement
d. 40-year-old admitted for possible bowel obstruction
3.What subjective data does the nurse record following a head-to-toe examination?
a. Rash on back
b. Prolonged nausea
c. Blood pressure of 190/100
d. White blood cell count of 19,000
4.What objective data should the nurse include after a patient assessment?
a. Headache of 3 days duration
b. Severe stomach cramps
c. Flatulence
d. Anxiety
5.What is classified as information provided by the family when a patient is unable to provide data during assessment?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Unreliable
d. Biased
6.What are the two primary methods used to collect data?
a. Written report by patient and family
b. Review of the chart and the nurse’s notes
c. Interview and physical examination
d. Review of the physician’s orders and the Kardex
7.The nurse writes two nursing diagnoses: (1) inadequate nutritional intake related to vomiting as manifested by a 3-lb weight loss and (2) risk for impaired skin integrity related to inadequate nutrition. What is the major difference between these diagnoses?
a. The second diagnosis needs no defined nursing interventions.
b. The second diagnosis needs medical intervention.
c. The second diagnosis will not need to be evaluated.
d. The second diagnosis reflects a problem that does not yet exist.
8.What framework does the establishment of priorities of care during the planning phase of the nursing process often use?
a. Erikson’s developmental tasks
b. Piaget’s cognitive table
c. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
d. Freud’s classifications
9.What is an appropriate outcome statement for a patient with a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions?
a. The patient will increase intake to 1000 mL daily to liquefy secretions.
b. The patient will cough more frequently within 3 days.
c. The patient will breathe better within 3 days.
d. The patient will perform deep-breathing exercises four times daily.
10.What is the primary purpose of nursing orders?
a. To support physician’s orders
b. To provide direction for all caregivers
c. To provide broad, general statements
d. To clarify nursing principles
What must this nurse develop to provide the best care?
a. Another language
b. Assessment skills
c. Cultural competence
d. Care planning ability
9.The nurse from New York City is caring for a patient from Atlanta, Georgia. What difference between the nurse and patient may cause them to experience difficulty in communicating?
a. Race
b. Subculture
c. Ethnic group
d. Culture
10.The father of an American Indian has just died. What should the nurse do immediately after death?
a. Provide privacy so that the family may touch and kiss the deceased goodbye
b. Ask about providing help with the death ceremony
c. Carefully wrap the deceased’s clothing for the family to take home
d. Mention the deceased by name frequently

Chapter 6: Cultural and Ethnic Considerations
1.Culture varies from patient to patient. Why is it important that the nurse understand and accept each person as an individual?
a. To develop a plan of care
b. To provide holistic care
c. To identify differences
d. To support each patient
2.What is a fixed concept of how all members of an ethnic group act or think?
a. Variations within a cultural group
b. Identical practices
c. Holistic nursing
d. Ethnic stereotypes
3.All nurses should work to provide culturally appropriate nursing care. What is the integration of cultural knowledge into all aspects of care?
a. Cultural competence
b. Transcultural nursing
c. Nursing process
d. Team nursing
4.What is the term for when members of a particular ethnic group believe that their beliefs and practices are the best?
a. Prejudice
b. Separatism
c. Ethnocentrism
d. Bias
5.What is the term used to describe cultures in which women make decisions about health care and provide the care and discipline to the children?
a. Biologic
b. Matriarchal
c. Cultural
d. Patriarchal
6.What basic philosophy in the United States is relevant to health care?
a. Folk remedies
b. Biomedical therapy
c. Holistic therapy
d. Spiritual intervention
7.What is a set of learned values, beliefs, customs, and practices shared by a group?
a. Race
b. Ethnicity
c. Culture
d. Religion
8.A nurse is American-born and works in a large hospital with patients from many cultures. What must this nurse develop to provide the best care?
a. Another language
b. Assessment skills
c. Cultural competence
d. Care planning ability
9.The nurse from New York City is caring for a patient from Atlanta, Georgia. What difference between the nurse and patient may cause them to experience difficulty in communicating?
a. Race
b. Subculture
c. Ethnic group
d. Culture
10.The father of an American Indian has just died. What should the nurse do immediately after death?
a. Provide privacy so that the family may touch and kiss the deceased goodbye
b. Ask about providing help with the death ceremony
c. Carefully wrap the deceased’s clothing for the family to take home
d. Mention the deceased by name frequently

Chapter 7: Asepsis and Infection Control
1.What is true regarding surgical asepsis?
a. It inhibits growth of pathogenic organisms.
b. It is known as a cleaning technique.
c. It includes hand hygiene.
d. It is known as a sterile technique.
2.What action exemplifies a nurse practicing medical asepsis in performing daily care?
a. Lifting a sterile swab from a sterile field
b. Using disposable sterile gowns
c. Washing hands for 5 minutes between patients
d. Keeping bed linens off the floor
3.What bacteria can lie dormant when conditions for growth are not favorable?
a. Residue
b. Capsules
c. Spores
d. Flagella
4.A patient with a respiratory infection reports that he is not yet on an antibiotic. The nurse explains that the physician is waiting on the results of the culture and sensitivity. What does this test determine?
a. What media the bacteria requires to grow
b. How fast the bacteria grow
c. Which antibiotics stop bacterial growth
d. When the bacteria colonize
5.What bacterium is responsible for more diseases than any other organism?
a. Staphylococcus
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Haemophilus influenzae
d. Streptococcus
6.What additional complication does a disease caused by a virus have compared to a disease caused by bacteria?
a. Multiplies rapidly
b. Returns frequently
c. Is not killed by antibiotics
d. Is unable to be cultured
7.A patient with ringworm asks the nurse if she has worms. What does the nurse inform the patient about the cause of ringworm?
a. Bacteria
b. Protozoa
c. Virus
d. Fungi
8.What should the nurse be diligent in to provide a safe environment for the patient?
a. Keeping a light on at night to prevent falls
b. Hand hygiene between patient contacts
c. Regulating the temperature to avoid drafts
d. Changing the bed linen to diminish microorganisms
9.What does the nurse describe when giving an example of a fomite vehicle?
a. Rabid dog
b. Person with AIDS
c. Contaminated stethoscope
d. Infected wound
10.The nurse observes a patient demonstrating wound cleaning. What action indicates the need for further instruction?
a. Using sterile gloves to perform the cleaning
b. Applying an antiseptic to the area
c. Cleaning the area from the outside in
d. Washing hands with soap

Chapter 8: Body Mechanics and Patient Mobility

1.The nurse instructs a nursing assistant to use large muscle groups when lifting. What is the rationale for this instruction?
a. Workers’ compensation claims will be prevented
b. Big muscles work more effectively
c. It guarantees no muscle strain
d. It distributes workload more evenly
2.What should the nurse do to reduce the effort of moving a heavy object?
a. Bring the feet close together and flex the knees
b. Keep the back straight and bend at the waist
c. Widen the base of support in the direction of movement
d. Broaden the base of support and twist toward the direction of movement
3.What should the nurse do to protect his or her back when lifting or moving a patient?
a. Lowering the height of the bed
b. Holding the back straight with locked knees
c. Bending knees and hips
d. Getting the patient to the side of the bed
4.Where should the nurse place the load when carrying heavy objects?
a. In a low position
b. To the side of the body
c. Close to the body midline
d. With another’s assistance
5.The nurse is educating a patient on ways to regain the ability to perform ADLs and maintain normal physiological activities. What will the nurse relay as a requirement?
a. Strength
b. Wellness
c. Alertness
d. Mobility
6.The nurse counsels the immobilized patient in regard to prevention of muscle atrophy and contractures. What will the nurse be sure to include when counseling this patient?
a. The need for additional calcium
b. The need for additional protein
c. The need for some type of exercise
d. The need for a special protective bed
7.What is the term for range of motion (ROM) when it is performed by the patient?
a. Assisted
b. Passive
c. Active
d. Coordinated
8.The nurse is performing passive range of motion (ROM) for the patient. How will the nurse move the joint through ROM?
a. The fullest extent
b. Place the joint in normal position
c. The point of pain
d. Relax the patient
9.How should the nurse assist the patient with moving when pain is anticipated?
a. Be supportive
b. Apply heat before moving them
c. Administer medication before ambulation
d. Obtain assistance if the patient is heavy
10.The 125-pound nurse assesses the weight of a patient. What weight is the heaviest the nurse may safely lift by herself?
a. 158.75 lb
b. 168.75 lb
c. 178.75 lb
d. 188.75 lb

Chapter 9: Hygiene and Care of the Patient’s Environment
1.The nurse is preparing to bathe a patient. What should the room temperature be set at?
a. No warmer than 67° F
b. No cooler than 68° F
c. No cooler than 70° F
d. 75° F or warmer
2.The nurse explains that the purpose of a sitz bath is to reduce inflammation in the perineal and anal area. What is the least amount of time the nurse will instruct for a sitz bath?
a. 10 to 15 minutes
b. 20 to 30 minutes
c. 30 to 40 minutes
d. 1 hour
3.A patient is recovering from a hemorrhoidectomy and experiences dizziness within 5 minutes when taking a sitz bath. What action should the nurse implement?
a. Cover the patient to prevent chilling
b. Stay with the patient until the full time for the bath has elapsed
c. Remove the patient from the sitz bath and return to bed
d. Assess vital signs every 5 minutes during the remainder of the sitz bath
4.What should the water temperature be when preparing a tepid bath for a patient?
a. 98.6° F
b. 100.2° F
c. 104.8° F
d. 110.4° F
5.The nurse is assessing a patient’s skin for signs of impaired skin integrity. Which finding by the nurse is considered a major manifestation?
a. Burn
b. Laceration
c. Pressure ulcer
d. Infection
6.A nurse assesses an area of sustained redness on the coccyx area of a resident in long-term care. What is the most likely cause of this pressure area?
a. Heat from pressure
b. Collapse of blood vessels
c. Friction from pressure
d. Collapse of skin tissue
7.The nurse is caring for an unconscious patient with a risk for skin impairment. How often will the nurse plan to change the position of this patient?
a. Every 30 minutes
b. Every 60 minutes
c. Every 120 minutes
d. Every 180 minutes
8.The nurse assesses a red blister over the right superior iliac area of a patient. What stage is this decubitus ulcer?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
9.The nursing assessment of a pressure ulcer includes size, depth, pain, odor, and color of tissue. What does this evaluate?
a. Treatment needed
b. Effectiveness of implementation
c. Whether improvement is occurring
d. Need for additional interventions
10.The nurse attempts to avoid a pressure ulcer for a bedridden patient by turning the patient frequently. What is the most favorable position for the nurse to move this patient into?
a. Back-lying
b. Full lateral
c. 30-degree lateral
d. Full prone

Chapter 10: Safety
1.The nurse manager is providing an in-service regarding a “safe hospital environment.” What will this education mainly focus on preventing?
a. Falls
b. Exposure to contaminants
c. Injury
d. Electrical hazard
2.What is important for the nurse to determine in order to decrease the risk for injury to a patient?
a. If patient can read English
b. If patient is left-handed
c. If patient is able to eat unassisted
d. If patient can dress independently
3.What skills should health care workers frequently attend in-services about to ensure that staff has competent skills and risk for falls can be decreased?
a. Bathing
b. Feeding
c. Transferring
d. Ambulating
4.What important safety precaution should the home health nurse teach parents in order to prevent burns to small children?
a. Never leave them unattended
b. Turn pot handles on stoves away from reach
c. Turn hot water on first when filling the bathtub
d. Keep side rails up on the crib
5.What must the nurse do before applying a safety reminder device (SRD)?
a. Get permission from the family
b. Assess patient’s skin condition
c. Get a physician’s order
d. Explain the SRD to the patient
6.What should the nurse do when offering a cup of hot coffee to a frail, older adult patient?
a. Give the patient a straw
b. Dilute the coffee with cold water
c. Fill the cup half full
d. Offer a bib or an apron
7.What type of fire extinguisher should the nurse use when the oxygen concentrator machine malfunctions and causes an electrical fire?
a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type C
d. Type D
8.A disaster situation occurs and involves an explosion in a hospital laundry. What would this be classified as ?
a. Active
b. External
c. Life-threatening
d. Internal
9.The emergency department nurse admits a victim of poisoning. Who should the nurse call to receive the best assistance for dealing with this victim?
a. American Red Cross
b. Fire department paramedics
c. Poison control center
d. Civil defense office
10.A nurse instructs a nursing assistant about the proper use of a gait belt and is observing a return demonstration. What action by the nursing assistant should cause the nurse to intervene?
a. Nursing assistant is walking on the patient’s strong side
b. Nursing assistant is walking to the side of the patient
c. Nursing assistant is securing the gait belt securely around the patient’s waist
d. Nursing assistant is grasping the handles of the gait belt while the patient ambulates

Chapter 11: Vital Signs
1.What part of the body maintains a balance between heat production and heat loss, regulating body temperature?
a. Thymus
b. Thyroid
c. Hypothalamus
d. Adrenal glands
2.What type of body temperature remains relatively constant?
a. Surface
b. Rectal
c. Oral
d. Core
3.The nurse uses cooling techniques to keep the body temperature below 105° F. What can result from an elevated temperature?
a. Excessive thirst
b. Excessive perspiration
c. Damage to body cells
d. Increased heart rate
4.The emergency department nurse quickly assesses the temperature of an unconscious patient who has been outside all night in below-freezing temperatures. What temperature is the nurse aware of that can lead to death?
a. 95.2° F
b. 93.0° F
c. 93.2° F
d. 90.8° F
5.What is the term for a fever that rises and falls but does not return to normal until the patient is well?
a. Constant
b. Intermittent
c. Remittent
d. Elevated
6.How should the nurse position the ear pinna when using the tympanic thermometer on a child?
a. Upward and back
b. Parallel
c. Downward and back
d. Upward and forward
7.How should the nurse position the earpieces on a stethoscope to ensure optimum reception?
a. Backward
b. Parallel to the ears
c. Toward the face
d. Downward
8.What does the nurse use the diaphragm of the stethoscope to best assess?
a. Carotid sounds
b. Lung sounds
c. Vascular sounds
d. Low-pitched sounds
9.What is the pulse—the expansion and contraction of an artery— produced by?
a. Contraction of the right atrium
b. Contraction of the right ventricle
c. Contraction of the left atrium
d. Contraction of the left ventricle
10.When assessing vital signs on a 40-year-old male, the nurse identifies a pulse rate of 120. What is this pulse interpreted as by the nurse?
a. Normal
b. Bradycardic
c. Arrhythmic
d. Tachycardic

Chapter 12: Physical Assessment
1.The nurse is collecting data during an initial assessment. What can be seen, heard, measured, or felt and is objective?
a. Symptom
b. Observation
c. Sign
d. Assessment
2.As part of an assessment, the nurse asks the patient for subjective information related to the present illness. What are the subjective findings perceived by the patient?
a. Assessments
b. Symptoms
c. Signs
d. Observations
3.Any disturbance of a structure or function of the body is a pathologic condition. What is the term for this condition?
a. Injury
b. Condition
c. Disease
d. Pathology
4.The nurse is assessing a patient for collection of subjective and objective data. What will this data provide the basis for making?
a. Care plan
b. Medical diagnosis
c. Nursing assessment
d. Nursing diagnosis
5.The nurse is discussing the origin of diabetes with a diabetic patient. What will the nurse discuss as the most appropriate explanation for the cause of this disease?
a. Pituitary
b. Adrenals
c. Pancreas
d. Thyroid
6.There are four categories of factors that increase an individual’s vulnerability to develop a disease: genetic, physiological, age, and lifestyle. What is the term for these factors?
a. Risk factors
b. Causative factors
c. Etiologic factors
d. Hazardous factors
7.When discussing diabetes with a patient, the nurse describes this disease as falling into which group in terms of duration?
a. Acute
b. Organic
c. Chronic
d. Functional
8.What is the term used to describe a disease where there has been a partial or complete disappearance of clinical and subjective characteristics of the disease?
a. Acute
b. Functional
c. Chronic
d. Remission
9.What type of disease results in a structural change in an organ that interferes with its functioning?
a. Functional disease
b. Organic disease
c. Acute disease
d. Chronic disease
10.The signs and symptoms of both infection and inflammation include erythema, edema, and pain. What is considered the major difference between infection and inflammation?
a. Inflammation is a result of bacteria.
b. Inflammation is a protective response.
c. Inflammation is a disease process.
d. Inflammation produces tissue damage.

Chapter 13: Admission, Transfer, and Discharge
1.When admitting a patient to the hospital, the nurse observes that the patient is distracted and tense. What does this behavior suggest as a common reaction to hospitalization?
a. Relief about being cared for
b. Fear of the unknown
c. Feeling of powerlessness
d. Concern about cost
2.A nurse is admitting a patient to an acute care facility. During the admission procedure, what nursing intervention would best help reduce patient anxiety?
a. Transport the patient by wheelchair.
b. Inform the physician that the patient is admitted.
c. Greet the patient by name.
d. Collect financial information during the interview.
3.What essential part of the admission procedure is performed by the RN?
a. Securing the patient’s valuables
b. Confirming the type of insurance coverage
c. Obtaining a health history
d. Familiarizing the patient with the room
4.When should discharge planning begin?
a. The day before discharge
b. On the first day postoperatively
c. Shortly after admission
d. When the doctor orders it
5.Where can a nurse refer the family of a patient to find a source of financial aid to meet medical expenses?
a. A local bank
b. A clinical nurse specialist
c. The hospital administration
d. Social services
6.When a patient demands to be discharged without a physician’s order and is leaving the unit with his belongings, what should the nurse ask the patient to sign?
a. A form exercising the patient’s rights
b. A discharge against medical advice form
c. An informed consent
d. An advanced directive
7.The nurse must be sensitive to an older adult patient experiencing separation anxiety when admitted to the hospital. When a child experiences separation anxiety they will usually cry. What will an older adult often demonstrate when experiencing separation anxiety?
a. Withdrawal
b. Anger
c. Depression
d. Regression
8.Upon admission, the nurse notes that a patient without family members present has a billfold filled with cash. Where can the nurse suggest the money be placed?
a. In a sealed envelope in the bedside table
b. In the care of hospital security
c. Locked in the narcotic cupboard
d. In the hospital safe
9.If a patient has an order for an interagency transfer where does the nurse explain that the patient will be moved?
a. A double room to a private room
b. One unit of the hospital to another
c. One room of the unit to another
d. One facility to another
10.Before the actual discharge occurs, what must the nurse ensure ?
a. The patient is well enough to go home.
b. The patient has not been overly medicated.
c. The patient understands the discharge instructions.
d. The patient has adequate transportation.

Chapter 14: Surgical Wound Care

1.The nurse is instructing a patient who has a drain in a surgical wound. How will the nurse indicate that the wound will heal?
a. Primary intention
b. Secondary intention
c. Tertiary intention
d. Deliberate intention
2.What technique will the nurse implement to assist the postoperative patient to cough?
a. Support the patient’s back
b. Offer an antitussive
c. Splint the abdomen with a pillow
d. Lean patient against the bedside table
3.The day following surgery, the nurse notes bloody drainage on the dressing. How will the nurse describe this drainage when documenting?
a. Serosanguineous
b. Sanguineous
c. Serous
d. Purulent
4.What is the advantage of an occlusive dressing?
a. Allows air to the incision
b. Keeps the incision moist
c. Delays epithelialization
d. Does not have to be changed
5.When removing the dressing on a patient, the nurse discovers that the gauze dressing has adhered to the wound. What intervention should the nurse implement?
a. Call the RN
b. Gently remove the gauze with sterile forceps
c. Cover with occlusive dressing
d. Moisten the dressing with sterile water
6.The nurse is providing instruction to a patient regarding home wound irrigation. How far should the patient hold the hand-held showerhead from the wound when irrigating the wound?
a. 2.5 inches
b. 6 inches
c. 12 inches
d. 18 inches
7.The nurse is irrigating a leg wound of a patient on the trauma unit. Where should the nurse direct the flow of the irrigant?
a. From the area of least contamination to the area of most contamination
b. Forcefully into the wound
c. Gently over the skin into the wound
d. From a distance of about 12 inches
8.The nurse observes a loop of bowel protruding from the surgical incision. What is the first intervention the nurse should implement?
a. Call the RN
b. Cover the bowel with a sterile saline dressing
c. Turn the patient to the side of the evisceration
d. Raise the patient up to a high Fowler position
9.The nurse is removing every other staple from a surgical wound, which has been closed with 15 staples. The wound begins to separate after removal of 3 of the 15. What nursing action should be implemented?
a. Remove 7 more alternate staples and securely tape with Steri-Strips
b. Cover with moist dressing and apply a binder
c. Continue to remove staples as ordered because this is an expected outcome
d. Leave the 12 staples in place and record the separation
10.The physician has not ordered a dressing change for a draining wound on a patient in an acute care setting. How should the nurse assess the amount of drainage?
a. Weigh the patient to estimate the weight of the saturated dressing
b. Reinforce the dressing
c. Circle and date the outline of the exudate on the dressing
d. Count each dressing as 1 mL of drainage

Chapter 15: Specimen Collection and Diagnostic Testing
1.New physician orders are transcribed for a patient to receive a colonoscopy. What must be completed before the colonoscopy to indicate the patient has been given full knowledge about what will be done along with its risks and complications?
a. Patients’ rights
b. Advance directive
c. Informed consent
d. Patient protection
2.The nurse is preparing a patient for a diagnostic examination. What can the nurse implement to assist with reducing anxiety?
a. Explain the costs of the examination
b. Demonstrate use of equipment
c. Answer questions for clarification
d. Fill out required paperwork
3.A patient is required to provide a sample of body excretions per physician order. What action can the nurse take when providing proper instructions to lessen the patient’s embarrassment?
a. Instruct patient to provide the specimen behind a screen.
b. Instruct patient to obtain his or her own specimen.
c. Instruct patient to return later when he or she is more comfortable.
d. Instruct patient to use a CNA for assistance to obtain the specimen.
4.What health care professional has the responsibility for notifying the physician when laboratory and diagnostic studies deviate from the norm?
a. Laboratory technician
b. Cooperating physician
c. Nurse
d. Supervisor
5.What is the term for the cleanest part of a voided urine specimen that is collected after voiding is initiated and before it is finished?
a. Sterile specimen
b. “Caught” specimen
c. Midstream specimen
d. Patient-collected specimen
6.The patient is to be catheterized for residual urine. The nurse must perform this catheterization within how many minutes following voiding?
a. 40 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 20 minutes
d. 10 minutes
7.The process for collecting a blood specimen for measuring blood glucose levels begins by asking the patient to hold the selected arm at his or her side for 30 seconds. From what anatomic location is the specimen obtained?
a. Tip of the finger
b. Cubital fossa
c. Side of the finger
d. Center of the thumb
8.What type of stool specimen must be sent to the laboratory immediately?
a. Occult blood
b. Ova and parasites
c. Infection
d. Fats
9.What is the probable source of bright red blood in the stool?
a. Stomach
b. Small intestine
c. Lower gastrointestinal tract
d. Higher intestinal tract
10.A sputum specimen is ordered on a patient diagnosed with pneumonia. When is the best time for the nurse to the attempt to collect this specimen?
a. At bedtime
b. After lunch
c. In the early morning
d. After breakfast

Chapter 16: Care of Patients Experiencing Urgent Alterations in Health
1.When administering first aid in emergency situations, the nurse must first survey victims for severity of injuries. What term correctly describes this process?
a. The Good Samaritan law
b. An emergency interview
c. Triage
d. Taking vital signs
2.The Good Samaritan law will protect all people who offer assistance. What is necessary for this protection?
a. A license
b. The person acts prudently
c. Licensed supervision
d. The patient improves
3.A nurse is assessing victims in an emergency situation. What will the nurse assess for first?
a. Hemorrhage
b. Fractures
c. Mobility
d. Abnormal breathing
4.CPR has been initiated at an accident site. When can CPR be terminated?
a. Victim is clinically dead
b. Victim is brain dead
c. Paramedics arrive
d. Rescuer perceives CPR is futile
5.The nurse determines clinical death and initiates CPR immediately. How long is resuscitation considered possible?
a. If cardiopulmonary arrest has existed for no more 2 minutes
b. If cardiopulmonary arrest has existed for no more 3 minutes
c. If cardiopulmonary arrest has existed for no more 4 minutes
d. If cardiopulmonary arrest has existed for no more 5 minutes
6.When assessing the adult victim for pulselessness, the CPR rescuer should palpate the most reliable and accessible pulse. Which pulse will be palpated?
a. Radial
b. Brachial
c. Carotid
d. Femoral
7.When a patient suddenly experiences respiratory difficulty in the cafeteria, the nurse begins assessment for foreign body airway obstruction. What is the most appropriate question to ask the victim?
a. “What did you swallow?”
b. “Are you choking?”
c. “Are you OK?”
d. “Can I help you?”
8.The patient arrived at the emergency department in pain and bleeding profusely with the following vital signs: BP 80/54, P 102, RR 22. What does the nurse recognize that these symptoms indicate?
a. Inadequate perfusion
b. Circulatory shock
c. Massive vasodilation
d. Heart failure
9.CPR has been initiated on an adult patient. How will the nurse confirm the effectiveness of CPR?
a. Assessing an EKG pattern with each compression
b. Assessing a palpable carotid pulse during each compression
c. Assuring a compression depth of to 2 inches
d. Observing pupils that change from pinpoint to dilated
10.A patient with multiple serious injuries sustained in a motorcycle accident is lying beside his wrecked motorcycle unconscious and bleeding when the rescuer arrives at the scene. What will be the rescuer’s priority action?
a. Assessing blood loss
b. Assessing respiratory status
c. Obtaining vital signs
d. Organizing laypeople at the scene

Chapter 17: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
1.The nurse is caring for a patient recovering from a hip replacement and is providing education regarding exercises in physical therapy. What type of therapy should the nurse call these exercises?
a. Alternative therapies
b. Complementary therapies
c. Comfort therapies
d. Body therapies
2.An older adult patient tells the home health nurse, “My doctor hasn’t helped my arthritis at all. I am using the chiropractor now.” What change has the patient made?
a. Western medicine to complementary therapy
b. Complementary therapy to alternative therapy
c. Alternative therapy to allopathic medicine
d. Allopathic medicine to alternative therapy
3.What is the responsibility of the National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine (NCCAM)?
a. To certify alternative medical practitioners
b. To evaluate effectiveness of alternative medical treatments
c. To set standards for the practice of alternative medicine
d. To train alternative medical practitioners
4.What is the importance of the nurse asking about the patient’s use of alternative therapies when obtaining a health history?
a. Alternative therapies can be covered by insurance.
b. Alternative therapies have unfortunate interactions with traditional therapies.
c. Alternative therapies can be substituted for allopathic medicine.
d. Alternative therapies have curative and healing power.
5.The nurse is obtaining health history information on a new patient at a physician’s office and he or she records a barbiturate medication on the current list. What herb should the nurse ask if the patient is taking?
a. St. John’s wort
b. Aloe vera
c. Valerian
d. Ginkgo
6.What should the nurse instruct a patient who takes tincture of rosemary to do several times a day?
a. Assess pulse frequently
b. Avoid constipation
c. Watch for hypoglycemia
d. Wear sunscreen
7.What is true regarding manufacturers of herbal remedy products?
a. They do extensive field testing on the products.
b. They must show dosage equivalents.
c. They must adhere to standards of strength.
d. They do not have to demonstrate their safety.
8.Herbs have not been approved for use as drugs. How are herbs allowed to be sold?
a. For pain relief
b. To improve body strength
c. To prolong life
d. As diet supplements
9.What is the goal of herbal therapy?
a. Treat symptoms
b. Restore balance
c. Treat disease
d. Improve nutrition
10.Confusion and misinformation relative to herbal medicine can make patients reluctant to disclose their herbal use to health care providers. What should be the nurse’s approach?
a. Instructive
b. Nonjudgmental
c. Inquisitive
d. Determined

Chapter 18: Pain Management, Comfort, Rest, and Sleep
1.A patient reports to the nurse that he is experiencing a moderate amount of back pain rated 6 out of 10 on the pain scale. What should the nurse recognize about this assessment?
a. Pain is objective for the nurse.
b. Pain is easy to recognize.
c. Pain is subjective for the patient.
d. Pain is easily relieved if found early.
2.A patient has pain in the left arm secondary to coronary insufficiency. This is an example of what type of pain?
a. Acute pain
b. Chronic pain
c. Referred pain
d. Subacute pain
3.The nurse reassures a patient that most acute pain is intense and of short duration. How long does can acute pain usually last?
a. 1 week
b. Less than 6 months
c. At least 9 months
d. More than 1 year
4.What is the defining term for continuous or intermittent pain that does not serve as a warning of tissue damage?
a. Acute
b. Unrelieved
c. Chronic
d. Subacute
5.The nurse is planning interventions for a patient experiencing pain. For what type of synergistic relationship should the nurse assess?
a. Inflammatory process
b. Circulatory disorder
c. Food allergy
d. Fatigue
6.The nurse is giving a backrub to a patient to relieve pain. What pain theory is the nurse using?
a. Synergism
b. Gate control
c. Distraction
d. Guided imagery
7.A young athlete asks the nurse why he felt little pain when he broke his leg during a game. What does the nurse describe as having an effect on this patient’s perception of pain?
a. Hormones
b. Enzymes
c. Adrenaline
d. Endorphins
8.Where does the nurse recognize that many institutions are now including pain assessment in implementing patient care?
a. The initial assessment
b. Discharge planning
c. Assessing vital signs
d. Care planning
9.Why should a nurse promptly administer a prescribed analgesic after a pain assessment?
a. The physician has ordered it
b. It is an efficient use of time
c. Unrelieved pain can cause setbacks
d. It meets the goals of the nursing care plan
10.The nurse obtains information from a patient about the site, severity, and duration of the pain. What type of data is this considered?
a. Patient data
b. Objective data
c. Focused data
d. Subjective data

Chapter 19: Nutritional Concepts and Related Therapies
1.The nurse makes nutrition a focus in the care plan. Where does nutrition play the most important role?
a. Weight control
b. Sustained appetite
c. Building strong bones
d. Health maintenance
2.The nurse is explaining the activity recommendations from the USDA’s new MyPlate plan. What is the minimum amount of moderate weekly exercise needed to balance nutritional intake?
a. 15 minutes
b. 1 hour and 15 minutes
c. 2 hours and 30 minutes
d. 60 minutes
3.What are elements that are found in food and necessary for good health but that the body cannot make?
a. Important nutrients
b. Life-saving nutrients
c. Essential nutrients
d. Necessary nutrients
4.To demonstrate the energy-producing potential of different foods, the nurse explains that 3 g of lean meat produces 12 kcal/g. How many kcal/g does 3 g of fish oil produce?
a. 6 kcal/g
b. 15 kcal/g
c. 21 kcal/g
d. 27 kcal/g
5.What has replaced the USDA’s Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)?
a. Nutrition Recommended Allowance (NRA)
b. National Bionutritional Allowance (NBA)
c. Dietary Reference Intake (DRI)
d. Dietary Guidelines for Americans (DGA)
6.How many kcal/g does 1 g of alcohol provide?
a. 4 kcal/g
b. 5 kcal/g
c. 6 kcal/g
d. 7 kcal/g
7.The nurse is educating a group of high school students regarding nutrition. How should the nurse respond when the students ask what occurs when protein, mineral, iron, and fat combine?
a. Body processes are regulated
b. Energy is provided
c. Tissue is built and repaired
d. Body function is restored
8.When reviewing a patient’s dietary intake, the nurse recommends that sugar consumption be reduced to the recommended daily level. What is this level?
a. No more than 24% of total daily kilocalories
b. No more than16% of total daily kilocalories
c. No more than 8% of total daily kilocalories
d. No more than 4% of total daily kilocalories
9.What is the body’s storage form of carbohydrates, usually found in the liver with some storage in the muscles?
a. Sugar
b. Glucose
c. Lipids
d. Glycogen
10.What is the term for stored fat that insulates the body and serves as a cushion to protect organs?
a. Subcutaneous tissue
b. Adipose tissue
c. Cohesive tissue
d. Lipid tissue

Chapter 20: Fluids and Electrolytes
1.What percentage of an adult’s body weight consists of water?
a. 10% to 20%
b. 30% to 40%
c. 50% to 60%
d. 70% to 80%
2.When administering intravenous (IV) fluids, the nurse ensures that the IV fluids are infusing as ordered to prevent dehydration in an adult. When could dehydration become lethal?
a. If the patient loses 5% of body fluid
b. If the patient loses 10% of body fluid
c. If the patient loses 15% of body fluid
d. If the patient loses 20% of body fluid
3.The nurse uses a diagram to show that fluids in the interstitial and intravascular compartments are combined. What do they combine to form?
a. Intercellular compartment
b. Circulating compartment
c. Vertical compartment
d. Extracellular compartment
4.The nurse encourages a patient who has been vomiting to drink fluids because the body fluid lost daily must match the amount of fluid taken in to maintain homeostasis. What is the recommended daily amount of fluid for an adult?
a. 1000 mL
b. 1500 mL
c. 2050 mL
d. 2500 mL
5.The nurse must keep an accurate intake and output record to assess kidney efficiency. In order for the kidneys to remove waste, what is the least amount of hourly urine output the kidneys must produce to remove waste?
a. 10 mL
b. 20 mL
c. 30 mL
d. 40 mL
6.The nurse weighs a patient at the same time of day with the same scale and same clothing. What is this a simple and accurate method of determining?
a. An accurate weight
b. Water balance
c. Adequate nutrition
d. Urinary output
7.When a patient takes substances into the body, they first enter the extracellular compartment. What must the substances enter to carry out their function?
a. Horizontal compartment
b. Intracellular compartment
c. Compartmental
d. Vertical compartment
8.What is the method by which inhaled oxygen is moved into the intravascular compartment called?
a. Active transport
b. Oxygenation
c. Passive transport
d. Mass movement
9.The nurse explains to a patient that the drug Lasix reduces edema by drawing water from the interstitial space into the intravascular space. What is this process called?
a. Diffusion
b. Filtration
c. Osmosis
d. Homeostasis
10.What does actively transporting electrolytes from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration require?
a. Hydrostatic pressure
b. Osmotic pressure
c. Blood pressure
d. Pulse pressure

AND MUCH MORE