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Test bank for Business Research Methods: Skill Building Approach 6thE, Uma Sekaran, Roger Bougie

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Test Bank for Business Research Methods – A Skill Building Approach 6th Edition, Uma Sekaran, Roger Bougie. Note : this is not a text book. Description: ISBN-10: 111994225X ISBN-13: 978-1119942252.

Description

Chapter 1
1. Business research can be described as a systematic and organized effort to investigate a specific problem encountered in the work setting, that needs a solution.
a. T
b. F

2. Research done with the intention of applying the results of the findings to solve specific problems currently being experienced in an organization is called basic research.
a. T
b. F

3. Research done chiefly to make a contribution to existing knowledge is called basic, fundamental, or pure research.
a. T
b. F

4. Applied research is not scientific in nature.
a. T
b. F

5. Fundamental research has little practical relevance.
a. T
b. F

6. Managers with knowledge of research have an advantage over those without.
a. T
b. F

7. Being knowledgeable about research and research methods helps professional managers to:
a. Identify and effectively solve minor problems in the work setting.
b. Know how to discriminate good from bad research.
c. Appreciate and be constantly aware of the multiple influences and multiple effects of factors impinging on a situation.
d. All of the above.

8. University professors do not engage in applied research.
a. T
b. F

9. The manager should make sure while hiring researchers or consultants that:
a. The roles and expectations of both parties are made explicit.
b. Relevant philosophies and value systems of the organization are clearly stated, and constraints, if any, communicated.
c. A good rapport is established with the researchers, and between the researchers and the employees in the organization, enabling the full cooperation of the latter.
d. All of the above.

10. An advantage of engaging in an internal team to do the research project is that the internal team would stand a better chance of being readily accepted by the employees in the subunit of the organization where research needs to be done.
a. T
b. F

Chapter 2
1. ‘Rigor’ related to scientific investigation refers amongst others to:
a. The probability that our estimations are correct.
b. The idea that a simple model that explains a certain phenomenon has preference over a complex model.
c. The fact that findings are generalizable.
d. The fact that an investigation has a clear theoretical foundation.

2. Confidence as a characteristic of scientific investigation refers to:
a. The probability that our estimations are correct.
b. The idea that a simple model that explains a certain phenomenon has preference over a complex model.
c. The fact that findings are generalizable.
d. The fact that an investigation has a clear theoretical foundation.

3. A researcher who observed separate phenomena and on this basis attempts to arrive at general conclusions, works inductively.
a. T
b. F

4. Logically speaking inductive research comes first (before deductive research)
a. T
b. F

5. A manager observes that higher prices lead to more sales. The results of a focus group point out that consumers use price as an indicator for quality. This is an example of deductive research.
a. T
b. F

6. Scientific investigation is characterized by a good theoretical base and a sound methodological design. These characteristics are both related to the of the investigation.
What must be filled on the line?
a. Rigor.
b. Precision and confidence.
c. Objectivity.
d. Parsimony.

7. An inductive investigation starts with an observation of empirical data.
a. T
b. F

8. A deductive investigation is based on theoretically logical reasoning.
a. T
b. F

9. Parsimony related to scientific investigation refers to:
a. The probability that our estimations are correct.
b. The idea that a simple model that explains a certain phenomenon is preferred to a complex model.
c. The fact that findings are generalizable.
d. The fact that an investigation has a clear theoretical base.

10. It is impossible to test hypotheses via case studies.
a. T
b. F

Chapter 3
1. A problem is any situation where a gap exists between the actual and the desired ideal states.
a. T
b. F

2. Once we have identified the management problem, it needs to be narrowed down to a researchable topic for study.
a. T
b. F

3. The selection of an academic perspective on the problem allows us to draw upon a rich body of literature to help us to solve the problem.
a. T
b. F

4. Secondary data refers to information that the researcher gathers first hand through instruments such as surveys, interviews, focus groups, or observation.
a. T
b. F

5. Which of the following answers cannot be an objective of preliminary research?
a. Mapping out the research problem.
b. Defining concepts.
c. Interpreting research outcomes.
d. Improving the relationship between the client and the performer of the investigation.

6. What is wrong with a problem definition that is ‘biased’?
a. The research problem is too broad.
b. The problem is not specific and clear.
c. The problem definition reflects the opinion of the researcher.
d. The problem definition lacks focus.

7. The quality of a literature review depends on a careful selection of data sources
a. T
b. F

8. Symptoms are concrete examples of the way in which a certain business problem reveals itself.
a. T
b. F

9. The field of interest of a research is unrelated to the problem and symptoms.
a. T
b. F

10. Secondary research simplifies the process of problem formulation.
a. T
b. F

Chapter 4
1. A literature review helps the researcher to undertake research that is relevant.
a. T
b. F

2. A literature review adds to the probability of finding significant relationships.
a. T
b. F

3. The functions of the critical literature review depend on the specific research approach that is taken.
a. T
b. F

4. In inductive research, a literature review will help the researcher to develop a theoretical framework and hypotheses.
a. T
b. F

5. A critical literature review ensures that the research effort is positioned relative to existing knowledge and builds on this knowledge.
a. T
b. F
6. A critical literature review ensures that a clearer idea emerges as to what variables will be important to consider, why they are considered important, and how they should be investigated to solve the problem.
a. T
b. F
7. A critical literature review may have a negative effect on the testability and replicability of the findings of the current research.
a. T
b. F

8. The quality of a literature review depends on a cautious selection and reading of books, academic and professional journals, reports, theses, conference proceedings, unpublished manuscripts, and the like.
a. T
b. F

9. Conference proceedings are quite valuable if you are working in a relatively new area or domain.
a. T
b. F

10. PhD theses often contain an exhaustive review of the literature in a specific area.
a. T
b. F

Chapter 5
1. A hypothesis can be based on inductive preliminary investigation or theory.
a. T
b. F

2. A hypothesis is unrelated to the theoretical framework.
a. T
b. F

3. A hypothesis is based on theory.
a. T
b. F

4. A hypothesis is by definition testable.
a. T
b. F

5. Which of the following parts does not belong to a theoretical framework?
a. The hypotheses corresponding to the model.
b. The operationalization of the used constructs of the model.
c. A logical explanation of the relationships within a model.
d. A graphical representation of the model.

6. Mediation can be partial as well as full.
a. T
b. F

7. A mediating variable influences the relationship between two variables.
a. T
b. F

8. Good research is aimed at falsification of hypotheses.
a. T
b. F

9. A good hypothesis is better than its rivals.
a. T
b. F

10. A moderating variable influences the original relationship between one or more independent variables and a dependent variable.
a. T
b. F

Chapter 6
1. Which type of study is most suitable when there is little to no insight in a certain problem or when there is no information available on how similar problems or research issues have been solved in the past?
a. Exploratory study.
b. Descriptive study.
c. Causal study.
d. Experiments.

2. What cannot be the purpose of a causal study?
a. Understanding the dependent variable.
b. Predicting the dependent variable.
c. Making sure that all relevant variables are included in the study.
d. Explaining the variance in the dependent variable.

3. If a bank manager wants to analyze the relationship between interest rates and bank deposit patterns of clients, a ‘field study’ is the most suitable method of investigation.
a. T
b. F

4. In an investigation on the relationship between customer satisfaction and loyalty among customers of a supermarket, the ‘unit of analysis’ is the supermarket.
a. T
b. F

5. A director of Burger King wants to have an overview of the profits made in the last five years in the Netherlands, Germany and the Czech Republic. To get this, the profits of all individual franchise-establishments have to be aggregated. The ‘unit of analysis’ in this case is the individual franchise-establishment.
a. T
b. F

6. A study in which data are gathered at more than one point in time is called …
a. A cross-sectional study.
b. A longitudinal study.
c. An experimental study.
d. A randomized study.

7. The type of investigation is an element of research design.
a. T
b. F

8. The study setting is an element of research design.
a. T
b. F

9. Which of the following studies is a causal in nature?
The researcher tries to find out:
a. The effect of reward system on productivity.
b. Why unemployment in Belgium is higher than in Germany.
c. Whether smoking is causing cancer.
d. All the above answers are correct.

10. The unit of analysis refers to the aggregation level of the data collected.
a. T
b. F

Chapter 7
1. Primary data are more important than secondary data.
a. T
b. F

2. Primary data are data that for example is gathered from annual reports.
a. T
b. F

3. It is preferred to first ask general questions and then more specific questions.
a. T
b. F

4. A thematic apperception test, an inkblot test and word association techniques are all examples of:
a. Projective methods.
b. Descriptive methods.
c. Prescriptive methods.
d. Iterative methods.

5. An inkblot test is an example of a projective method.
a. T
b. F

6. Which of the following points is not related to the costs for a respondent that go with the participation in an investigation?
a. Whether or not the respondent stays anonymous.
b. The duration of the interview.
c. The type of information that has to be given.
d. Lack of influence on the decision making.

7. Which of the following answers cannot be seen as a good way to probe in an interview?
a. Repeat the same question.
b. Come back to the subject later on.
c. Summarize the answer.
d. Be silent.

8. What is not a part of conversation introduction in an interview?
a. Socially emotional oriented aspects.
b. Verbal signals.
c. Corrective statements.
d. Monitoring the answers.

9. Interviews can help you to better interpret the results of a quantitative investigation.
a. T
b. F

10. Interviews are a useful method to collect data in case studies.
a. T
b. F

Chapter 8

1. Observational methods are best suited for research requiring non-self-report descriptive data; that is when behavior is to be examined without directly asking the respondents themselves.
a. T
b. F

2. An observational study is said to be low in control when the situation or setting is manipulated or contrived by the researcher.
a. T
b. F

3. A major drawback of uncontrolled observation is however that it is usually difficult to untangle the often complex situation since we do not control any factor in this.
a. T
b. F

4. Active participation occurs when the researcher does not actively participate, and only occasionally interacts with the social group under study.
a. T
b. F

5. Structured observation is generally quantitative in nature.
a. T
b. F

6. Reactivity refers to the extent to which the observer affects the situation under observation.
a. T
b. F

7. Pure observation has been described as ‘going native’; the researcher becomes so involved with the group under study that eventually every objectivity and research interest is lost
a. T
b. F

8. Typical examples of passive participation are observations conducted in service consumption settings, such as in a lecture room, a theatre, a waiting room, or a theme park.
a. T
b. F

9. Deviants are persons who take upon themselves to check out the new person and what it is this person is after.
a. T
b. F

10. Generally speaking, the most important factor in determining what to observe is the aim or purpose of the study.
a. T
b. F

Chapter 9
1. The hypotheses of a study are a good starting point when designing a questionnaire.
a. T
b. F

2. The hypotheses need to be briefly explained to the respondent when a questionnaire is used to collect data.
a. T
b. F

3. A questionnaire includes the following question, measured on a 5-point Likert scale:
“To what extent are you satisfied with the appearance and the service of the shop-assistants?”
This question is an example of a:
a. Leading question.
b. Loaded question.
c. Double-barreled question.
d. Ambiguous question.

4. An advantage of personally administered questionnaires is that uncertainties can be explained.
a. T
b. F

5. What is metacognition?
a. A question that is impurely and inaccurately formulated.
b. An assessment error from the researcher about the knowledge level of the respondent.
c. Ideas of the respondent about what he should think or feel.
d. Ideas of the respondent about what the interviewer would like to hear.

6. Evaluate the following question on suitability for the use in a questionnaire (measured on a 5-point Likert scale):
“Do you think that in the current economical situation it is wise to reduce salaries of top sportsman?”
a. This question is leading.
b. This question is loaded.
c. This question is double-barreled.
d. This question in any case is not leading, loaded or double-barreled.

7. A disadvantage of electronic questionnaires is that this way of surveying is relatively expensive.
a. T
b. F

8. ‘To what extent can you say about yourself that you are happy?’ is an example of a loaded question.
a. T
b. F

9. If in the introduction of the questionnaire it is made clear that the answers will be handled anonymously, this can lead to bias of the results.
a. T
b. F

10. The sequence of questions in a questionnaire can lead to a certain bias; this phenomenon is also referred to as ordering effects.
a. T
b. F

Chapter 10
1. Manipulation of independent variables in order to unravel causal relationships is unacceptable from a scientific point of view.
a. T
b. F

2. The manipulation of the independent variable is also known as the treatment, and the results of the treatment are called treatment effects.
a. T
b. F

3. One way of controlling “nuisance” variables is to match the various groups by picking the confounding characteristics and deliberately spreading them across groups.
a. T
b. F

4. External validity of lab experiments refers to the confidence we place in the cause-and-effect relationship.
a. T
b. F

5. A field study is an experiment done in the natural environment in which work goes on as usual, but treatments are given to one or more groups.
a. T
b. F

6. Internal validity refers to the extent of generalizability of the results of a causal study to other settings.
a. T
b. F

7. There is a trade-off between internal validity and external validity. If we want high internal validity, we should be willing to settle for lower external validity and vice versa.
a. T
b. F

8. Cause-and-effect inferences can be contaminated by the effects of the passage of time. Such contamination effects are denoted history effects.
a. T
b. F

9. An interactive testing effect occurs when the prior observation (the pretest) affects the later observation (the posttest).
a. T
b. F

10. A time series design thus allows the researcher to assess the impact of a treatment over time.
a. T
b. F

AND MUCH MORE