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MR2 2nd Edition, Tom J. Brown, Tracy A. Suter Test Bank

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Test Bank for MR2 – 2nd Edition, Tom J. Brown, Tracy A. Suter. Note : this is not a text book. Description: ISBN-13: 978-1133958413 ISBN-10: 1133958419.

 

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MR2 2nd Test Bank

Chapter 1— Marketing Research:From Data to Information to Action
1. Which of the following is NOT consistent with the definition of marketing research?
a. The definition is broad.
b. The definition stresses the importance of activities conducted in order to understand the process of marketing.
c. The definition emphasizes the function as a link between consumers and the firm.
d. The definition states that marketing research is focused on collecting information.
e. Neither b nor d is consistent with the definition.

2. Marketing research:
a. is simply asking consumers for their likes, dislikes, needs, and wants in a one-on-one situation.
b. spans the informational boundary between the firm and its environment.
c. can only be employed to assess the impact of past or contemplated adjustments in the marketing mix.
d. is most generally used for marketing control purposes.
e. is most generally a marketing implementation function.

3. Which of the following is FALSE?
a. The basic purpose of marketing research is to assist marketing managers in making more informed decisions.
b. Marketing research became a significant business activity after World War II when the economy changed from a production orientation to a consumption orientation.
c. Marketing research as an organizational function was adopted by most firms when they could no longer satisfy demand for their products.
d. Marketing managers and marketing researchers work together in close partnerships that are most successful when managers understand research processes.
e. All of the above are false.

4. Marketing research:
a. is the use of information to identify and define marketing problems.
b. aims to improve our understanding of management as a process.
c. aims to promote government regulation of research activities.
d. is only useful in companies with over $1 million in annual sales.
e. is not very useful to a provider of services, such as banks.

5. Which of the following phases of the information-management process is NOT part of the marketing research process?
a. The specification of what information is needed.
b. The collection of the information.
c. The analysis of the information.
d. The use of the analyzed information.
e. The interpretation of the information.

6. What is the basic purpose of marketing research?
a. To make decisions for managers.
b. To furnish information that aids decision-making.
c. To assist government regulatory agencies.
d. To confirm management’s decisions.
e. To help develop new products.

7. Which of the following is FALSE?
a. The federal government is the largest producer of marketing facts.
b. All businesses share a common problem of needing information.
c. The principal task of marketing research is to increase profit.
d. Marketing research is only one of the aspects of a marketing strategy.
e. Not all of the above are false.

8. The Handyman Tools Company commissioned a survey designed to determine whether homeowners prefer plastic or metal casings on electric screwdrivers. The results of this survey will likely be used as input into decisions concerning which element of the marketing mix?
a. Price
b. Product
c. Publicity
d. Promotion
e. Place

9. Which of the following is FALSE?
a. A study to gauge the properties of a material for its suitability to manufacture a particular product is market research.
b. An attempt to determine the most efficient allocation of funding to various promotional activities is an example of marketing research.
c. A survey designed to identify the characteristics of light, average, and heavy users of detergent is an example of marketing research.
d. Videotaping computer users to understand the context of software use is an example of marketing research.
e. Visiting various restaurants and sampling different menu items in preparation for opening a new restaurant is an example of marketing research.

10. A company wants to identify the market for a new candy bar and commissions a survey of 1000 middle-school students from three cities. In this case, all middle-school students in the three cities are the _____ for the market research.
a. population
b. sample
c. control group
d. census
e. focus group

Chapter 2—The Research Question:Formulation of the Problem
1. The two fundamental sources of marketing research problems are:
a. planned change and unplanned change.
b. ineffective advertising and change.
c. poor sales and ineffective advertising.
d. poor management and unplanned change.
e. technological advancement and customer suggestions.

2. Which of the following is FALSE?
a. Serendipity is synonymous with planned change.
b. Strategy-oriented decision problems focus on selecting alternative courses of action.
c. The marketing problem should be defined clearly so that research can be designed properly.
d. Change is a fundamental source of marketing problems.
e. Discovery-oriented problems are common with unplanned changes in the marketing environment.

3. The main purpose of marketing research brought about by planned change is to:
a. decide how to implement the change.
b. find out what is happening and why.
c. describe changes in the internal environment.
d. describe changes in the external environment.
e. explore the possible causes of the change.

4. The main purpose of discovery-oriented marketing research is to:
a. decide what to do about a planned change.
b. find out what is happening and why.
c. try out a new product in a test market.
d. describe changes in the internal environment.
e. capture and evaluate a new idea.

5. Which of the following is TRUE?
a. Many managers cannot clearly and precisely state the nature of the decision problem they want investigated.
b. Managers do not need to be actively involved in the marketing research process.
c. If a decision-maker will not change his decision regardless of the result of the research, the research should still be conducted for informational purposes.
d. A researcher should not worry about the decision alternatives as decision-makers typically provide researchers with a complete list of them.
e. All of the above statements are true.

6. Research problems might arise from:
a. unanticipated change in the marketing environment.
b. a firm’s planned change of a marketing variable.
c. customer complaint letters and salepeople’s reports.
d. both a and c.
e. a, b and c.

7. Serendipity, or chance ideas, as a source of marketing research problems, might arise from:
a. customer complaint letters.
b. salesperson’s call reports.
c. comments in trade publications.
d. customer calls to assistance centers.
e. all of the above.

8. Which of the following is TRUE?
a. The decision problem is synonymous with the research problem.
b. The decision problem involves determining what information to provide and how that information can best be secured.
c. The decision problem focuses on the problem or opportunity from the manager’s perspective while the research problem focuses on the problem as viewed by the researcher.
d. The research problem focuses on what action needs to be taken while the decision problem focuses on what information to provide and how that information can best be secured.
e. All of the above statements are true.

9. A research request agreement includes all of the following items, EXCEPT:
a. an analysis of the results of the research process.
b. the decision problem confronting the manager.
c. the target population from which a sample will be drawn.
d. an approximation of the time and expense of the research report.
e. the way each piece of information will be used.

10. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Under normal circumstances, poor problem formulation can be rescued by more sophisticated statistical analyses.
b. Misdefining the problem or opportunity can produce disastrous results for companies.
c. The best way to avoid researching the wrong problem is to delay the research until the problem is properly defined.
d. A “problem” confronting a company might also be viewed as an opportunity, and vice versa.
e. A research problem is merely a restatement of the decision problem in research terms, from the researcher’s perspective.

Chapter 3 — Exploratory, Descriptive, and Causal Research Designs

1. The descriptive study:
a. usually takes the form of an experiment.
b. has its major emphasis on the discovery of insights and ideas.
c. is concerned with determining the frequency with which something occurs.
d. is concerned with the determination of a cause-and-effect relationship.
e. has as its main objective the establishment of priorities for future research.

2. Which of the following is FALSE?
a. In exploratory research, the major concern is with the discovery of ideas and insights.
b. Exploratory research is often used to clarify concepts and to establish priorities for further research.
c. Exploratory research investigates hypotheses.
d. Exploratory research is used to develop hypotheses.
e. Exploratory studies do not lend themselves very well to the use of structured questionnaires.

3. A causal research design is typically concerned with:
a. the frequency with which something occurs.
b. the discovery of ideas and insights.
c. how two variables vary together.
d. the determination of cause-and-effect relationships.
e. establishing priorities when studying competing explanations of phenomenon.

4. The major emphasis in exploratory research is on:
a. determining the frequency with which something occurs.
b. the discovery of ideas and insights.
c. the relationship between two variables.
d. determining cause-and-effect relationships.
e. providing definitive answers.

5. A hypothesis:
a. is a conjectural statement about the relationship between two variables that are measurable or potentially measurable.
b. is a broad, vague problem statement.
c. cannot be discovered during research.
d. does not have clear implications for testing the relationship between variables.
e. is only found in the causal type of research.

6. The manager of Capitol Brewing Inc. states that he is very concerned with the continuing decline in sales of the company’s major product, a dark lager. The manager has asked for your assistance in finding the reasons for the sales decline. The most appropriate way to begin would be with:
a. exploratory research.
b. descriptive research.
c. causal research.
d. an experiment.
e. a consumer study.

7. Which research design(s) is (are) typically guided by an initial hypothesis?
a. Causal
b. Descriptive
c. Exploratory
d. Exploratory and causal
e. Descriptive and causal

8. The descriptive study:
a. usually takes the form of an experiment.
b. has its major emphasis on the discovery of insights and ideas.
c. is concerned with determining the frequency with which something occurs.
d. is concerned with the determination of a cause-and-effect relationship.
e. has as its main objective the establishment of priorities for future research.

9. Using different ads in different geographic areas and investigating which ad generated the highest sales is an example of _____ research design.
a. causal
b. exploratory
c. longitudinal
d. descriptive
e. panel

10. A literature search is a type of _____.
a. causal research
b. exploratory research
c. experimental research
d. descriptive research
e. Both b and c.

Chapter 4—Collecting Secondary Data from Inside and Outside the Organization
1. The distinction between primary and secondary data is defined by the:
a. method of collection.
b. purpose of the investigation.
c. form used for collection.
d. group sponsoring the collection.
e. type of data collected.

2. Which of the following might NOT be considered a benefit of using secondary data?
a. Secondary data help clarify the problem under investigation better.
b. Secondary data cost less to collect than primary data.
c. Secondary data suggest improved methods or data for addressing research problems.
d. Secondary data provide comparative data to primary data.
e. Secondary data fit the problem under investigation better.

3. Which of the following are examples of secondary data (as contrasted with primary data)?
a. Demographic information (birth, age, marriage, income, etc.) collected from a sample of respondents as a part of a market segmentation study for a prominent grocery chain.
b. Housing data (tenure, race of occupants, year built, etc.) as reported in the Journal of Marketing and later used by a researcher working on a project for a construction company.
c. Housing data especially collected from a sample by a researcher working on a project for a construction company.
d. Consumer attitudes as measured by an attitude questionnaire designed and used by a researcher investigating a model of consumer behavior.
e. Results of an experiment used to evaluate advertisement effectiveness for a new product.

4. Which of the following is TRUE?
a. Primary data is gathered by the researcher’s organization and secondary data is gathered by some other organization.
b. The researcher should attempt to gather secondary data before initiating a search for primary data.
c. Secondary data in a secondary source is just as accurate as secondary data in a primary source.
d. If a researcher obtains secondary data from the party who collected them, he or she is using a secondary source of secondary data.
e. They are all false.

5. The basic rule that should be followed by all researchers when beginning the data collection process is to:
a. begin with secondary data, and then proceed if necessary to collect primary data.
b. always start by consulting the statistical abstract of the United States.
c. begin with primary data, then supplement if needed with secondary data.
d. always investigate external sources of secondary data first.
e. design a field experiment to collect primary data.

6. Which of the following does not constitute an advantage of secondary sources of information?
a. Help to better state the problem under investigation
b. Complete fit with the problem
c. Suggest improved methods or data for better coming to grips with the problem
d. Provide comparative data by which primary data can be more insightfully interpreted
e. Less costly

7. The most important advantage(s) of secondary data is(are) that:
a. it is appropriate for many purposes.
b. it is usually more thoroughly tested and evaluated.
c. it may involve additional field and office personnel.
d. there could be possible cost and time savings.
e. it provides a welcome rest in the library.

8. Secondary data rarely fit perfectly the researcher’s particular problem. The most important reason for the lack of fit is(are):
a. out-of-date statistics, differences in units of measurement, differences in class boundaries.
b. differences in units of measurement, theories of measurement, and class boundaries.
c. differences in evaluations of what is important.
d. the volume of data provided is too large.
e. differences in collection method and research design.

9. A source of secondary data that presents data, often in abstracted form, secured from the originator of the data is known as a(n):
a. mediated source.
b. secondary source.
c. third-party source.
d. primary source.
e. abstractive source.

10. A researcher is attempting to evaluate the market potential of a new product in a new area and has used the Statistical Abstract of the United States for some of the needed information. Which of the following has the researcher used?
a. A primary source of primary data.
b. A secondary source of primary data.
c. A primary source of secondary data.
d. A secondary source of secondary data.
e. None of the above.

Chapter 5—Collecting Primary Data by Observation
1. If we were measuring customers’ age, income, gender, education, occupation, marital status, etc., we would be measuring:
a. attitudes/opinions.
b. psychological/lifestyle characteristics.
c. demographic/socioeconomic characteristics.
d. behavior and perceptions.
e. none of the above.

2. Which of the following is NOT a demographic or socioeconomic characteristic?
a. A feeling toward a brand
b. Marital status
c. Social class
d. A person’s gender
e. Income

3. A common use of demographic and socioeconomic data in marketing is:
a. delineating market segments.
b. investigating intentions to purchase.
c. relating attitudes to opinions.
d. discovering motivations.
e. determining brand awareness.

4. Procter & Gamble, the manufacturer of Olay skin lotion, has traditionally targeted women over 30 years of age. This is an example of:
a. demographic segmentation.
b. racial segmentation.
c. psychographic segmentation.
d. ethnic segmentation.
e. regional segmentation.

5. Personality refers to the:
a. traits and mannerisms of an individual.
b. overall evaluation of a particular product by an individual.
c. individual’s understanding of a fact or a phenomenon.
d. age and education of an individual.
e. financial background of an individual.

6. Which of the following is a lifestyle characteristic?
a. Social class
b. Interests
c. Attitudes
d. Home ownership
e. Age

7. John’s purchase behavior is influenced by his hobbies of golf, working out, and fishing; his interest in cars, music, and travel; and his deeply held political beliefs on immigration and his opinions on saving the environment. All of these are part of the personal influence factor called:
a. attitude.
b. socioeconomic characteristics.
c. beliefs.
d. lifestyle.
e. demographics.

8. Ferrari has segmented their market on the basis of income and lifestyle. Their target market has household income greater than $200,000 and enjoys spectator sports like NASCAR racing. These two segmentation variables are grouped under the broader classifications of:
a. demographics and product awareness.
b. psychographics and customer intentions.
c. geographic and motives.
d. demographics and psychographics.
e. demographics and product usage.

9. “Mission Possible” is a non-profit retail store that sells gift items made by artisans from over 30 underdeveloped countries. It provides employment to impoverished third world craftspeople and markets their handiwork at a fair price. It defines its market segment as people who believe in helping others and who feel good about helping others whenever possible. The store uses _____ segmentation.
a. demographic
b. psychographic
c. geodemographic
d. ethnic
e. geographic

10. Frito-Lay’s division of snackers into two categories was based on the:
a. attitudes and opinions of the customers.
b. aided recall of the consumers.
c. lifestyle analysis of the consumers.
d. knowledge of the product.
e. literacy levels of the consumers.

Chapter 6—Collecting Primary Data by Communication
1. Questions that give the respondent no indication of the true purpose of the research project are known as:
a. disguised questions.
b. confounded questions.
c. structured questions.
d. undisguised questions.
e. unstructured questions.

2. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of structured questions?
a. Questions are standardized
b. Simple to administer
c. Responses difficult to interpret
d. Saves time and money
e. Easy to analyze

3. The responses as well as questions are standardized in a(n):
a. unstructured questionnaire.
b. disguised questionnaire.
c. structured questionnaire.
d. depth interview.
e. focus group.

4. Although fixed-alternative questions tend to provide the most reliable responses, they may also ____.
a. deceive the respondent
b. hide the purpose of the study
c. encourage misleading answers
d. avoid possible replies
e. obstructs factual information

5. ____ is the process of providing appropriate information to respondents after data have been collected using disguise.
a. Debriefing
b. Administrative Control
c. Structure
d. Mall Intercepts
e. Sampling Control

6. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe the mail questionnaire?
a. It allows a wide sample to be used.
b. It allows a representative sample to be used.
c. It is a relatively inexpensive means of recruiting respondents.
d. It ensures that the correct person receives and completes the questionnaire.
e. It is more suitable for contacting busy executives than a telephone or personal interview.

7. The major problem with using the mall intercept method to conduct personal interviews concerns:
a. the ability to direct the inquiry to a randomly determined respondent.
b. securing the cooperation of mall merchants.
c. securing the cooperation of the respondent.
d. the noisy, distracting environment in which the interview is conducted.
e. the high cost of the method.

8. Which of the following affords the researcher the most sample control with respect to getting cooperation from the respondent?
a. Phone interviews
b. Personal interviews
c. Mail questionnaires
d. Questionnaires published in newspapers
e. Warranty information cards

9. Which of the following is FALSE?
a. Mailing lists to serve as the sampling frame for a mail survey may be generated internally by the firm or purchased externally.
b. In recent years, one of the keys to using a mail questionnaire is the ability to direct the questionnaire to a specific individual, not just a position (e.g., Vice President of Marketing).
c. The quality of the mailing list determines the sampling control in a mail study.
d. Mail questionnaires typically provide more sample control than telephone or personal interviews.
e. They are all true.

10. The problem of nonresponse due to refusals to participate is usually:
a. lower with personal interviews than with either telephone interviews or mail-administered questionnaires.
b. lower with mail questionnaires than with telephone or personal interviews.
c. lower with telephone interviews than with mail questionnaires or personal interviews.
d. the same no matter what communication method is used.
e. None of the above are true.

Chapter 7—Asking Good Questions
1. As defined in the text, measurement consists of:
a. the assignment of numbers (representing quantities of attributes) to objects according to rules.
b. using a given scale to make comparisons.
c. determining the frequency of a particular attribute.
d. the assigning of numbers (denoting aggregates of properties) solely for identification purposes.
e. numbers which can be assigned to the physical properties of objects.

2. Regarding measurement basics, we measure:
a. objects.
b. quantities of objects.
c. quantities of attributes of objects.
d. variance among objects.
e. variance among attributes.

3. Which of the following statements about nominal scales is TRUE?
a. The numbers identify the objects.
b. The numbers order the objects.
c. The median can be used as the measure of average.
d. The mean can be used as the measure of average.
e. Both a and c.

4. Which of the following about a nominal scale is FALSE?
a. You are studying the product life cycle phenomenon attempting to classify certain products into the following stages: introduction, growth, maturity, saturation, and decline. This represents nominal scaling.
b. With a nominal scale, the numbers assigned to individuals or categories are arbitrary.
c. The respondent’s gender is an example of a nominal scale.
d. Both a and b.
e. a, b, and c.

5. Which of the following is(are) permissible measure(s) of central tendency with ratio scales?
a. Arithmetic mean, median, and the mode
b. Geometric mean
c. Median and mode
d. Both a and b
e. a, b, and c

6. Which of the following scales is reflected by an attribute of an object that represents a non-ordered classification?
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Interval
d. Ratio
e. Continuous

7. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with respect to a nominally classified variable?
a. Counting is the only permissible operation.
b. The median is a permissible measure of central tendency.
c. The only property conveyed by the number is identity.
d. When members of a sample have been classified along a nominal scale, it is possible to say what percentage of the sample is classified a certain way.
e. The mode is a permissible measure of central tendency.

8. The interchanging or switching of scale values among and between objects does not affect the originally intended purpose of the scale when the scale is:
a. nominal.
b. ordinal.
c. interval.
d. ratio.
e. the interchanging of scale values always affects the purpose.

9. Code words, letters, or numbers used by security and intelligence organizations to form secret codes are examples of what type of scales?
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Interval
d. Ratio
e. Continuous

10. For a scale to have ordinal properties, which of the following must be established?
a. If “a” is greater than “b,” then “b” is not greater than “a.”
b. If “a” is greater than “b” and “b” is greater than “c,” then “a” is greater than “c.”
c. If “a” is equal to “b” and “b” is equal to “c,” then “a” is equal to “c.”
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.

Chapter 8—Designing the Questionnaire
1. The first step in designing a questionnaire is to:
a. determine the type of questionnaire and method of administration.
b. specify what information will be sought.
c. determine the content of individual questions.
d. determine the form of response to each question.
e. determine the wording of each question.

2. When deciding to ask for specific information, researchers should ask which of the following questions?
a. Is the question necessary?
b. Can two questions be combined in one?
c. Do respondents have the necessary information?
d. Researchers should ask all the above.
e. Both a and c.

3. Which of the following is FALSE?
a. Respondents tend to answer questions even when they do not possess the necessary information to give reasonable answers.
b. Some questionnaire studies fail because the respondent is willing but is unable to provide the information needed.
c. A respondent may be more willing to provide information to a researcher if he or she is capable of articulating answers to the researcher’s questions.
d. Any response given by the respondent is good.
e. Offering an incentive often affects the respondent’s willingness to participate.

4. A researcher developing a questionnaire becomes aware of an interesting additional relationship that could be investigated at very little cost and effort. He knows that this is not vital to his present research purpose. He should:
a. investigate it to a limited extent.
b. forget it.
c. evaluate the cost.
d. investigate it carefully.
e. investigate it, as this is likely to reduce sampling error.

5. Which of the following is TRUE?
a. Designing a questionnaire is often an iterative process, with steps or sequences of steps often being repeated.
b. It is difficult, if not impossible, to state a question in such a way that it will mean exactly the same thing to every respondent.
c. Gathering information by way of a questionnaire requires decisions with respect to structure and disguise and also whether it will be administered by mail, telephone, or personal interview.
d. Both a and b.
e. a, b, and c.

6. When designing questionnaires, hypotheses can be used:
a. as a guide to determine what information will be sought.
b. to determine the type of question.
c. to determine the form of response.
d. Both a and b.
e. a, b, and c.

7. Which of the following is(are) useful in deciding what information will be sought in the development of a questionnaire?
a. Randomized response model
b. “Dummy tables” used to structure data analysis
c. The hypotheses
d. Both a and b above.
e. Both b and c above.

8. In determining the type of questionnaire and the method of administration the researcher need not specify:
a. precisely what primary data are needed.
b. how these data might be collected.
c. what degree of structure will be used.
d. what degree of disguise is warranted.
e. the method of statistical analysis to be used.

9. Which of the following is TRUE?
a. In forming a question for a questionnaire, a question should be worded so as to secure an answer with only the required detail, not so as to generate additional information.
b. It is wise to break one question into two when different frames of reference could be used by the respondent.
c. The open-ended question is often employed as the beginning question in that it can provide insight into the respondent’s frame of reference.
d. When determining if the individual has the necessary information, the researcher should take into account how important the event was likely to be to the individual and how long ago it took place.
e. All of the above are true.

10. A researcher who is investigating why consumers’ tastes in cars are changing has developed lengthy attitude and motivation scales and several open-ended questions. She should use:
a. a mail survey.
b. personal interviews.
c. the observation method.
d. telephone interviews.
e. Any of the above would be suitable.

Chapter 9—Developing the Sampling Plan
1. Which of the following conclusions to the sentence is INCORRECT? “It is often preferable to sample rather than canvass a population because…”
a. complete counts of populations of even moderate size are very costly and time consuming.
b. the information will be obsolete by the time the census is complete.
c. in some cases a census is impossible.
d. a sample has less potential for nonsampling error.
e. statistical procedures cannot be used on population data.

2. A complete canvass of a population is called a:
a. sample.
b. census.
c. sampling frame.
d. population.
e. directory.

3. Samples are often used to infer something about a population rather than canvassing the population itself because they are typically:
a. cheaper than complete counts.
b. faster than complete counts.
c. more accurate than complete counts.
d. Both a and b.
e. a, b, and c.

4. Ten volunteers are requested from your class to test a new bicycle. Of these ten, two are selected at random for the actual tests. The sampling frame consists of:
a. the students who were selected for the actual tests.
b. the students who volunteered.
c. all the students in the class.
d. the students who were not selected.
e. all the students in the school.

5. Sample size depends upon the:
a. type of sample.
b. statistic in question.
c. homogeneity of the population.
d. Both a and c.
e. a, b, and c.

6. A sampling frame:
a. is a list of population elements from which the sample will be drawn.
b. is the list of population elements actually included in the sample.
c. usually provides biased statistics.
d. is a form of probability sampling.
e. is a form of nonprobability sampling.

7. Which of the following is NOT a problem with using a phone book for a sampling frame?
a. Unlisted phone numbers.
b. Not all homes have phones.
c. Double counting homes with multiple phone numbers.
d. The phone book is always outdated.
e. All of the above are problems when sampling from phone books.

8. In order to define a population, the researcher needs to specify:
a. the geographic boundaries of the population.
b. which elements are not of interest.
c. the time period for the study.
d. Both a and b.
e. a, b, and c.

9. The distinguishing feature of nonprobability sampling plans is that:
a. they allow an assessment of sampling error.
b. they are not as representative of the population as probability samples.
c. they involve personal judgment somewhere in the selection of sample elements.
d. there is only one basic type of nonprobability sample while there are several types of probability samples.
e. they tend to be more expensive than probability samples.

10. In probability samples, the probabilities of each element being included must be:
a. known.
b. nonzero.
c. equal.
d. known and equal.
e. known and nonzero.

Chapter 10— Data Collection: Enhancing Response Rates while Limiting Errors
1. The difference between the observed values of a variable and the long-run average of the observed values in repetitions of the measurement is (the):
a. nonresponse error.
b. nonsampling error.
c. sampling error.
d. noncoverage error.
e. office error.

2. Sampling errors can be decreased by:
a. decreasing the number of observations.
b. increasing the sample size.
c. providing better training for interviewers.
d. improving the data collection method.
e. using a quota sample.

3. Nonsampling errors occur because of errors in:
a. conceptionalization of the response project.
b. reporting the results of a project.
c. arithmetic.
d. interpreting respondent replies.
e. All of the above are nonsampling errors.

4. Which of the following is FALSE?
a. It is not difficult to estimate the size and effects of nonsampling errors.
b. Reduction of nonsampling error depends on improving method.
c. Nonsampling errors are not as manageable as sampling errors.
d. Nonsampling errors arise from weaknesses in research procedure. They are likely to increase with increases in the sample size.
e. Nonsampling errors contribute more than sampling errors to total error in most surveys.

5. The best way to reduce nonsampling errors is to:
a. increase sample size.
b. improve data collection techniques.
c. offer incentives to respondents.
d. substitute the next house on the block for not-at-homes.
e. Nonsampling errors cannot be reduced.

6. Which of the following is TRUE?
a. Noncoverage, nonsampling error is best treated by increasing the sample size that is selected.
b. Noncoverage, nonsampling error is essentially a sampling frame problem and if clear, complete, up-to-date sampling frames exist, noncoverage is not likely to be a problem.
c. While noncoverage can be a source of bias, overcoverage is not. In fact, overcoverage may improve estimates as it means that the sample size is larger than initially planned at no increase in cost.
d. Noncoverage bias is essentially eliminated with quota samples.
e. Noncoverage error can be statistically estimated.

7. A researcher investigating the consumption of sugar takes a random sample from the population and computes the mean sugar consumption. He repeats the procedure a number of times using the exact same procedure, and finds the means obtained vary from sample to sample. This is an example of:
a. systematic error.
b. sampling error.
c. nonsampling error.
d. noncoverage error.
e. response error.

8. Increasing sample size ____ but may also ____.
a. decreases sampling error, increase nonsampling error
b. has no influence on sampling error, increase nonsampling error
c. increases nonsampling error, increase sampling error
d. increases sampling error, increase nonsampling error
e. decreases nonsampling error, decrease sampling error

9. Failure to include some units, or entire sections, of the defined survey population in the actual operational sampling frame represents:
a. noncoverage error.
b. nonresponse error.
c. sampling error.
d. random error.
e. observation error.

10. Which of the following is NOT an example of a nonsampling error?
a. Using a telephone directory as a sampling frame.
b. Choosing a quota sample by strictly adhering to the response instructions.
c. Using a city map purchased in a gas station as the sampling frame.
d. Using state car title records as a sampling frame.
e. All of the above are examples of non-sampling errors.

AND MUCH MORE